Test Paper :15
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 7 September 2008
Test Location : GWALIOR
Posted By : DEEPIKA AGARWAL
HI FRIENDS I HAVE GIVEN THE DRDO EXAM I HAVE WRITE SOME QUESTIONS FOR YOU HOPE IT WILL HELP YOU.
WRITTEN EXAM QUESTION ANSWER PAPER OF ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION
Drdo was formed in
A.1947 b.1950 c.1954 d.1958
Ans: 1958
Samyukta is developed for the use of
A. Navy b. Army c.airforce d.rac
Ans:army
The satellite launch vehicle that placed a no. Of satellites into orbit im may 2008 is
Ans: pslv-c9
4 .green house effect is due to the increase of atmocspheric
Ans: co level
In the month of july, it is winter in
Ans : sydney
6. . Sarnath is situated in the state of
A.mp b.up c.punjab d.bihar
Ans: up
The chairman of planning commission of india
Ans: prime minister
Darl-202 is avariety of
A. pea b.garlic c.capsicum d.tomato
Ans: capsicum
9. Trishul is
ANS: a Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile.
HUMSA IS A
ANS: SONAR
THERE ARE ALSO SOME 12 BASED MATHS QUESTIONS
1.THE INVERSE OF THE MATRIX COS X SIN X IS
-SIN X COS X
2.THE SUM OF TWO NUMBER IS 16 AND THE SUM OF THEIR SQUARES IS A MINIMUM.THE TWO NUMBERS ARE
ANS : 8,8
Some questions on differential equations and definite integral,limitcomplex functios,vectors,and one question on arithmetic progression.
FROM APTITUDE THERE ARE QUESTIONS BASED ON FIGURES.
IF DELHI IS WRITTEN AS EDHIL,THEN PARIS IS WRITTEN AS
ANS: APISR
THE NUMBERS OF PRIME NUMBERS BETWEEEN 10 AND 50 IS
ANS: 11
THE ODD ONE IN THE LIST:
LAN,TCP/IP,HACKER AND KILLER IS
ANS : KILLER
SAW IS TO CARPENTER AS SCALPEL IS TO
ANS: SURGEON
THE NEXT TWO NUMBERS OF THE SERIES 3,5,11,21 ARE
ANS: 35 AND 53
IF KERNEL IS TO A DOG,THEN -------- IS TO HEN.
ANS: COOP
ACROPHOBIA IS THE ABNORMAL FEAR OF
ANS: HEIGHT
8: THE ANTONYM OF THE TRANSIENT IS
ANS: PERMANENT
THE MEANING OF THE WORD PLAGIARISM IS
ANS: THEFT OF IDEAS
TECHINAL QUESTIONS FROM ELECTRONICS I AND II ALMOST 20 QUESTIONS
LIKE
1. A COMMON LED IS MADE OF
A.INTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTOR B.DIRECT SEMICONDUCTOR
C. DEGENERATE SEMICONDUCTOR D. INDIRECT SEMICONDUCTOR
2. NEGATIVE RESISTANCE CHARACTERISTICS IS EXHIBITED BY A
ANS: TUNNEL DIODE
THE THRESHOLD VOLTAGE VT IS NEGATIVE FOR
ANS: AN N-CHANNEL DEPLETION MOSFET
- Find out what I'm doing, Follow Me :)
Sunday, October 11, 2009
Test Paper :13
Paper Type : Candidates Experiences
Test Date : 29 November 2007
Test Location : Delhi
Posted By : sruthi
DRDO PAPER ON 29TH NOVEMBER,2007
Date of interview :29-11-2007
venue : rac drdo complex delhi
Interviewing team consist 5 members, they are from drdo and faculty of NIT IIT age of members is between 35 to 65.
Interview duration : 30 minutes
Q1 what r u doing now ?
Q2. if mtech, name of college and gate sscore?
Q3. if u select then will u leave mtech ?
Technical ( electronics)
Q1what is area of interest ?
ans: analog
---then they are laugghing on this subject because most of candidate have same area of interest .
Q 2. make a ckt of inversting opamp ?
Q3 find out gain of it with Rf=100k and R1 =1K?
ans = -100
Q.4then they modify same ckt then find out gain .
--then one member said u r studing vlsi i said yes
then the asked Question
Q5.what is Epitaxial layer ?
Q6 what is the differnce between the Ion implantatiion and other method of the diffusion .
then other member asked:
Q.7 what is your final yaer project ?
i dont have project report then they ask for draw ckt daigram or block daigram and explain through it this is the most important part of the intreview ---- then other member
Q.8 what is mass action law?
Q.9 what is transition caapaciitance in the pn diode ,
Q.10 what is relation between the depletion region lenght and transition capacitance.
Q.11what is diffence between Radar antenna and other simple antenna .--- other member
One meber ask me ,have u studied ddigital in your degree course , i said yes , then he have a digital ckt consiist of counter , he said find the output of it , that ckt is seen first time by me in my life . i tried it to solve... at last he said ok go . in digital questions are from counter design and interview consist of basic question of the subbject and good knowledge of the projject and area of the interest.
Observation by me thier :-
#PHD, MTECH degree is advaantage
#any experiance is Advantage
# good gate score is advatge.
#any paper publication is advanatgee .
# if u r from NIT Govt. college insteadnof the private collegev is advantage .
# sometime they laugh on your answer, this part of interview , dont get nervous by this .
# interiew is easy study 3-4 subject before interview and revise project thhroughly .
# luck have major role in the interview
Test Paper :14
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 4 November 2007
Posted By : Raj
DRDO PAPER ON 4th NOVEMBER 2007
Hi Many questions will be asked about your B.Tech Project
Device density on a processor/chip
Difference between computer and super computer
How the performance of a super computer is measured (in tera flops)
what is tera flop ?
If a 2.8GHz processor is given, calculate the number of floating point calculations that it can do.
name of indigenous super coputer (PARAM, built by C-DAC)
Did DRDO make any super computer ?
what is multi tasking
Question on Process serialization
Question on Producer consumer problem
Question on Inter Process Communication
Define critical section
Are Metal Oxide Semiconducter devices slower ? Why ?
Truth table of half adder & full adder
Question on Circular Queue
2/3 Questions on Binary search algorithm
Question in C about Strucuter & Union
Paper Type : Candidates Experiences
Test Date : 29 November 2007
Test Location : Delhi
Posted By : sruthi
DRDO PAPER ON 29TH NOVEMBER,2007
Date of interview :29-11-2007
venue : rac drdo complex delhi
Interviewing team consist 5 members, they are from drdo and faculty of NIT IIT age of members is between 35 to 65.
Interview duration : 30 minutes
Q1 what r u doing now ?
Q2. if mtech, name of college and gate sscore?
Q3. if u select then will u leave mtech ?
Technical ( electronics)
Q1what is area of interest ?
ans: analog
---then they are laugghing on this subject because most of candidate have same area of interest .
Q 2. make a ckt of inversting opamp ?
Q3 find out gain of it with Rf=100k and R1 =1K?
ans = -100
Q.4then they modify same ckt then find out gain .
--then one member said u r studing vlsi i said yes
then the asked Question
Q5.what is Epitaxial layer ?
Q6 what is the differnce between the Ion implantatiion and other method of the diffusion .
then other member asked:
Q.7 what is your final yaer project ?
i dont have project report then they ask for draw ckt daigram or block daigram and explain through it this is the most important part of the intreview ---- then other member
Q.8 what is mass action law?
Q.9 what is transition caapaciitance in the pn diode ,
Q.10 what is relation between the depletion region lenght and transition capacitance.
Q.11what is diffence between Radar antenna and other simple antenna .--- other member
One meber ask me ,have u studied ddigital in your degree course , i said yes , then he have a digital ckt consiist of counter , he said find the output of it , that ckt is seen first time by me in my life . i tried it to solve... at last he said ok go . in digital questions are from counter design and interview consist of basic question of the subbject and good knowledge of the projject and area of the interest.
Observation by me thier :-
#PHD, MTECH degree is advaantage
#any experiance is Advantage
# good gate score is advatge.
#any paper publication is advanatgee .
# if u r from NIT Govt. college insteadnof the private collegev is advantage .
# sometime they laugh on your answer, this part of interview , dont get nervous by this .
# interiew is easy study 3-4 subject before interview and revise project thhroughly .
# luck have major role in the interview
Test Paper :14
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 4 November 2007
Posted By : Raj
DRDO PAPER ON 4th NOVEMBER 2007
Hi Many questions will be asked about your B.Tech Project
Device density on a processor/chip
Difference between computer and super computer
How the performance of a super computer is measured (in tera flops)
what is tera flop ?
If a 2.8GHz processor is given, calculate the number of floating point calculations that it can do.
name of indigenous super coputer (PARAM, built by C-DAC)
Did DRDO make any super computer ?
what is multi tasking
Question on Process serialization
Question on Producer consumer problem
Question on Inter Process Communication
Define critical section
Are Metal Oxide Semiconducter devices slower ? Why ?
Truth table of half adder & full adder
Question on Circular Queue
2/3 Questions on Binary search algorithm
Question in C about Strucuter & Union
Test Paper :12
Paper Type : General - Interview
Test Date : 17 November 2007
Test Location : Pune
Posted By : sruthi
DRDO PAPER ON 17TH NOVEMBER AT PUNE
Venue: Transist Facility-II, Nr.BEL, NDA Road, Pashan,Pune Date:- 17th November 07
Hi, Friends
I have appeared in DRDO interview for Scientist-B at Pune on 17th November 2007.First all candidates have to sit in waiting room at venue center and give sign for presence. It will be better for guys to go with tie and black shoe. Tea or Coffee provided in waiting room and go for documents verification & submission of their required Bio-data form one bye one in administrative office according to list of candidates.(They have called 12 candidates on that day).At that time Interview was started in sequence. Average time taken for interview is half hour. In the interview room there was five members. One chairman, two internal members and two external members.
When you enter inside interview room you have to sit in front of board members. One will first demand for your project report and one ask about your interesting subject of your discipline. Then different board member ask question about your interesting subjects. If you are answering right way then they can take you in brief to map your abilities. Then member who has taken your project report will ask about your project work. I am highlighting questionnaires below which I have faced in interview. I am belongs to CSE so I have told Data Structure, Microprocessor and Computer Networks from my interesting subjects.
Board Member-I (Chairman)
1) What is your Name?
2) Which College you are belongs to?
3) Types of network cables?
4) Building structure of all that cables and differences?
Board Member-II (External)
1) Why microprocessor is called 8/16 bit processor?
2) What is diff between 8/16 bit processor?
3) Why lower address data/address buses are multiplexed?
4) Diff between data and address bus?
5) Use of buses in microprocessor?
6) How many address location will addressed with 16 address line?
7) Function of cache memory?
Board Member-III (External)
1) What you will do for database loss and recovery?
2) What is DDL and DML which command are belongs to both?
3) What will be radix sort time complexity by big ohh method?
4) Use of Data dictionary?
5) What is schema?
6) What is use of Data Flow Diagram (DFD)?
Board Member-IV (Internal) (About my project of Z39.50 protocol development)
1) What is your project of protocol?
2) What facilities are provided by this protocol and usefulness?
3) What you have developed and where it is useful?
4) In which layer Z39.50 protocol works?
5) What you will do for connect to computers generally?
6) What type of network eshtablished in your office and which cable is used?
7) Have you heard about RED?
8) What is pass by value and pass by reference in programming?
Board Member-V (Internal)
1) What is XML?
2) Where you have used XML in you project?(my project also have XML use)
3) What is use of your project for in that organization?
4) Where is Z39.50 protocol useful in application?
Paper Type : General - Interview
Test Date : 17 November 2007
Test Location : Pune
Posted By : sruthi
DRDO PAPER ON 17TH NOVEMBER AT PUNE
Venue: Transist Facility-II, Nr.BEL, NDA Road, Pashan,Pune Date:- 17th November 07
Hi, Friends
I have appeared in DRDO interview for Scientist-B at Pune on 17th November 2007.First all candidates have to sit in waiting room at venue center and give sign for presence. It will be better for guys to go with tie and black shoe. Tea or Coffee provided in waiting room and go for documents verification & submission of their required Bio-data form one bye one in administrative office according to list of candidates.(They have called 12 candidates on that day).At that time Interview was started in sequence. Average time taken for interview is half hour. In the interview room there was five members. One chairman, two internal members and two external members.
When you enter inside interview room you have to sit in front of board members. One will first demand for your project report and one ask about your interesting subject of your discipline. Then different board member ask question about your interesting subjects. If you are answering right way then they can take you in brief to map your abilities. Then member who has taken your project report will ask about your project work. I am highlighting questionnaires below which I have faced in interview. I am belongs to CSE so I have told Data Structure, Microprocessor and Computer Networks from my interesting subjects.
Board Member-I (Chairman)
1) What is your Name?
2) Which College you are belongs to?
3) Types of network cables?
4) Building structure of all that cables and differences?
Board Member-II (External)
1) Why microprocessor is called 8/16 bit processor?
2) What is diff between 8/16 bit processor?
3) Why lower address data/address buses are multiplexed?
4) Diff between data and address bus?
5) Use of buses in microprocessor?
6) How many address location will addressed with 16 address line?
7) Function of cache memory?
Board Member-III (External)
1) What you will do for database loss and recovery?
2) What is DDL and DML which command are belongs to both?
3) What will be radix sort time complexity by big ohh method?
4) Use of Data dictionary?
5) What is schema?
6) What is use of Data Flow Diagram (DFD)?
Board Member-IV (Internal) (About my project of Z39.50 protocol development)
1) What is your project of protocol?
2) What facilities are provided by this protocol and usefulness?
3) What you have developed and where it is useful?
4) In which layer Z39.50 protocol works?
5) What you will do for connect to computers generally?
6) What type of network eshtablished in your office and which cable is used?
7) Have you heard about RED?
8) What is pass by value and pass by reference in programming?
Board Member-V (Internal)
1) What is XML?
2) Where you have used XML in you project?(my project also have XML use)
3) What is use of your project for in that organization?
4) Where is Z39.50 protocol useful in application?
Test Paper :11
Paper Type : Aptitude - General
Test Date : 6 September 2003
Posted By : admin
This piece of info in obtained from the DRDO SET exam conducted in Sept 2003. Still the questions is not yet complete.
General Pattern
-There are 2 sections:A and B
-'A' section consists of technical questions relevant to your field[100 questions]
-'B' section consists of a mix of Analytical,Quantitative and General Knowledge questions[50 questions]
4 marks for correct answers and -1 for wrong answers
Section 'A' questions
1) Banker's algorithm is used for:Deadlock Avoidance
2) A LOT of questions were based on generating strings from a given grammar.
3) A circle(dot) shown in the PCB is:Vcc/Grnd/Pin 1/Pin 14
4) Program Segment Prefix in MS-DOS 5.0 is:
5) Some IP addresses were given and the question was to select the private addess from it(?)
6) 10Base2 and 10Base5 wires refers to:
7) A question on sliding-window protocol
8) Which of the following require a driver?:disk/cache/ram/cpu
9) A LOT of mathematical questions which were asked from calculus,trigonometry...
Section 'B' questions
1) Coldest planet:Pluto
2) INS Shivali is the first:
3) Which one of the following was NOT indegineously developed?:Prithvi/Akash/Agni/...
4) Full form of SARS
5) Anthrax is a :Virus/Bacteria/.../...
6) Dakshina Gangothri is:Ganga's origin/Indian camp @ antartica/.../...
7) Which of the following is a chemical weapon:Mustard Gas/Marsh Gas/.../...
8) A question based on Coding and Decoding
9) Another question similar to above
10) Question on series completion
11) Another series completion question
12) Where is Institute of Forensic Science?:Hyderabad
13) A G.K question based on X and Y chromosomes in males and females
Paper Type : Aptitude - General
Test Date : 6 September 2003
Posted By : admin
This piece of info in obtained from the DRDO SET exam conducted in Sept 2003. Still the questions is not yet complete.
General Pattern
-There are 2 sections:A and B
-'A' section consists of technical questions relevant to your field[100 questions]
-'B' section consists of a mix of Analytical,Quantitative and General Knowledge questions[50 questions]
4 marks for correct answers and -1 for wrong answers
Section 'A' questions
1) Banker's algorithm is used for:Deadlock Avoidance
2) A LOT of questions were based on generating strings from a given grammar.
3) A circle(dot) shown in the PCB is:Vcc/Grnd/Pin 1/Pin 14
4) Program Segment Prefix in MS-DOS 5.0 is:
5) Some IP addresses were given and the question was to select the private addess from it(?)
6) 10Base2 and 10Base5 wires refers to:
7) A question on sliding-window protocol
8) Which of the following require a driver?:disk/cache/ram/cpu
9) A LOT of mathematical questions which were asked from calculus,trigonometry...
Section 'B' questions
1) Coldest planet:Pluto
2) INS Shivali is the first:
3) Which one of the following was NOT indegineously developed?:Prithvi/Akash/Agni/...
4) Full form of SARS
5) Anthrax is a :Virus/Bacteria/.../...
6) Dakshina Gangothri is:Ganga's origin/Indian camp @ antartica/.../...
7) Which of the following is a chemical weapon:Mustard Gas/Marsh Gas/.../...
8) A question based on Coding and Decoding
9) Another question similar to above
10) Question on series completion
11) Another series completion question
12) Where is Institute of Forensic Science?:Hyderabad
13) A G.K question based on X and Y chromosomes in males and females
Test Paper :10
Paper Type : Aptitude - General
Posted By : admin
Model for ECE:
Direct Theory question:
1. A triangular-square wave generator uses
* A sine wave oscillator and a comparator
* An integrator and a comparator
* A diffrentiator and comparator
* A sine wave oscillator and a clipper
2. An amplifier has two identical cascaded stages. Each stage has a BW of 20KHz. The overall BW
shall be
* 10KHz
* 12.9KHz
* 20KHz
* 28.3HHz
Direct numerical problem:
1. A parabolic dish antenna has a diameter of 1m. the maximum possible ideal gain of the antenna at a wavelength 3.14cm is
* 20 dB
* 30 dB
* 40 dB
* 50 dB
2. The frequency deviation produced in a VHF carrier by a signal of 100Hz is 50KHz. The frequency modulation is
100 radians
250 radians
500 radians
750 radians
Application based theoretical or numerical problem:
Which one of the pulses has the same form in time domain as well as in frequency domain
Rectangular
Exponenetial
Triangular
Gaussian
Good voice reproduction via PCM requires 128 quantisation levels. If the BW of voice channel is 4KHz then data rate is
256 Kbps
128 Kbps
56 Kbps
28 Kbps
Match the following:
1. List 1 List2
A. Thyristor 1. Second break down
B. MOSFET 2. Large on-state drop
C. IGBT 3. Small on state drop
D. BJT 4. Slow device
Codes:
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
List 1 List2
A. Free and forced response 1. Discrete time systems
B. Z transform 2. Dirichlet conditions
C. Probability theory 3. Non-homogenous differential equation
d. Fourier series 4. Random process
Codes:
brium lattice constant, which is different in different materials.
AOp-amp are commonly used in instrumentation
R Op-amps do not load the circuit due to their very high input impedance
Problem based on circuits and graphs:
Some examples:
For circuits: HW rectifier, voltmeter, RC or RLC or RL transients, feedback systems, clipper, clamper, transistor biasing,555 circits, logic gates, counters, bridges and wattmeters.
Graphs: Frequency response H(s),open loop gain from root loci, Nyquist plot, transfer functions etc
Paper Type : Aptitude - General
Posted By : admin
Model for ECE:
Direct Theory question:
1. A triangular-square wave generator uses
* A sine wave oscillator and a comparator
* An integrator and a comparator
* A diffrentiator and comparator
* A sine wave oscillator and a clipper
2. An amplifier has two identical cascaded stages. Each stage has a BW of 20KHz. The overall BW
shall be
* 10KHz
* 12.9KHz
* 20KHz
* 28.3HHz
Direct numerical problem:
1. A parabolic dish antenna has a diameter of 1m. the maximum possible ideal gain of the antenna at a wavelength 3.14cm is
* 20 dB
* 30 dB
* 40 dB
* 50 dB
2. The frequency deviation produced in a VHF carrier by a signal of 100Hz is 50KHz. The frequency modulation is
100 radians
250 radians
500 radians
750 radians
Application based theoretical or numerical problem:
Which one of the pulses has the same form in time domain as well as in frequency domain
Rectangular
Exponenetial
Triangular
Gaussian
Good voice reproduction via PCM requires 128 quantisation levels. If the BW of voice channel is 4KHz then data rate is
256 Kbps
128 Kbps
56 Kbps
28 Kbps
Match the following:
1. List 1 List2
A. Thyristor 1. Second break down
B. MOSFET 2. Large on-state drop
C. IGBT 3. Small on state drop
D. BJT 4. Slow device
Codes:
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
List 1 List2
A. Free and forced response 1. Discrete time systems
B. Z transform 2. Dirichlet conditions
C. Probability theory 3. Non-homogenous differential equation
d. Fourier series 4. Random process
Codes:
brium lattice constant, which is different in different materials.
AOp-amp are commonly used in instrumentation
R Op-amps do not load the circuit due to their very high input impedance
Problem based on circuits and graphs:
Some examples:
For circuits: HW rectifier, voltmeter, RC or RLC or RL transients, feedback systems, clipper, clamper, transistor biasing,555 circits, logic gates, counters, bridges and wattmeters.
Graphs: Frequency response H(s),open loop gain from root loci, Nyquist plot, transfer functions etc
Test Paper :9
Paper Type :
Test Date : 2 September 2007
Test Location : A.N.S Public school mayur vihar pkase-1 Delhi
Posted By : Anuj kumar kaushik
hi Friends .....
There were two sections in the DRDO paper(CS)
Technical and aptitude
1.APTITUDE:-
There were 50 questions in this section,questions were from simple reasoning.or I can say that reasoning was very easy,there were verbal and non-verbal type questions.
but there were also questions from English and G.K.
Although it was not mention in prospect that English and G.K questions will come,
Some G.K.questions were easy like--Tank Developed by DRDO(Arjun).
PRITHVI is what kind of missile(surface to surface).
mahatma Gandhi during breaking ognsalt rule move up to(Dandi)...etc..
2.Technical
Questions of this section were average,not easy not tough.
questions were as I remember Mostly from Automata so prepare well Automata.
String generating ques. were there.
(A)The class of context-free language is not closed under
1.Concatenation
2.Union
3.Intersection(ans)
4.None
(b)Which of the following sentence is generated by the production Grammer.
s->aSbA
A->dccA
1.abbbd
2.aabccd(ans)
3.aabd
4.ababcd
(C) Hard disk has a rotation speed of 7200RPM. then the latency time is
a) .4
b) .6
c) .7
d) .9
some questions were from C output they were easy.
2 questions were related to Time-Complexity.
study from following books.
Computer Organization---William Stallings,Morris Mano
Theory of Computation---Aho and Ullman
Compiler Design-----Ullman
Operating systems----Galvin
computer Networks----William Stallings
Paper Type :
Test Date : 2 September 2007
Test Location : A.N.S Public school mayur vihar pkase-1 Delhi
Posted By : Anuj kumar kaushik
hi Friends .....
There were two sections in the DRDO paper(CS)
Technical and aptitude
1.APTITUDE:-
There were 50 questions in this section,questions were from simple reasoning.or I can say that reasoning was very easy,there were verbal and non-verbal type questions.
but there were also questions from English and G.K.
Although it was not mention in prospect that English and G.K questions will come,
Some G.K.questions were easy like--Tank Developed by DRDO(Arjun).
PRITHVI is what kind of missile(surface to surface).
mahatma Gandhi during breaking ognsalt rule move up to(Dandi)...etc..
2.Technical
Questions of this section were average,not easy not tough.
questions were as I remember Mostly from Automata so prepare well Automata.
String generating ques. were there.
(A)The class of context-free language is not closed under
1.Concatenation
2.Union
3.Intersection(ans)
4.None
(b)Which of the following sentence is generated by the production Grammer.
s->aSbA
A->dccA
1.abbbd
2.aabccd(ans)
3.aabd
4.ababcd
(C) Hard disk has a rotation speed of 7200RPM. then the latency time is
a) .4
b) .6
c) .7
d) .9
some questions were from C output they were easy.
2 questions were related to Time-Complexity.
study from following books.
Computer Organization---William Stallings,Morris Mano
Theory of Computation---Aho and Ullman
Compiler Design-----Ullman
Operating systems----Galvin
computer Networks----William Stallings
Test Paper :8
Paper Type : General - other
Test Date : 9 March 2008
Test Location : HYDERABAD
Posted By : RAMPRASAD
DRDO PAPER ON 9th MARCH AT HYDERABAD
Hai friends…… This is RAMPRASAD…..I am written the senior technical assistance’ A’ on METALLURGY (Diploma Based exam on 9/03/2008). In exam most of the questions from the p.p.m, thermo dynamics, physical metallurgy, iron making, heat treatment, foundary technology, nonferrous. Less questions from fuels &refractory, steel making, welding, material testing, mechanical metallurgy.
I am written some question( I am not written total question) and answers(only some ans) . Questions are asked only fundamentals. I think exam is very easy for fresher candates.
EXAM PATTERN:
Technical questions -- 40 marks
Aptitude questions -- 10 marks
Exam paper total object type questions.
DURATION: 1 hr
1)pine oils are used in----------------- ans: frothers
2)TTT diagram is also known as------------------
a)s-curve b)c-curve c)isothermal transformation d)all ans:d
3)Hyper eutectoid-------------------------ans: perlite+cemtite
4)In austempring process---------formed ans: Bainite
5)gun metalalloy of cu+zn+------ ans: tin
6)In nodular cast iron ----added ans: mg
7)p+f=------ans:c+2
8)line diffect------------------ans: edge dislocation
9)permanent mould casting-------ans: centrifugal casting
10)higest co-ordination number---------------ans: h.c.p
11)isobaric at constant------------------------- ans: pressure
12)when temperature and farenheit are same----ans:-40
13)acicular structure consists like--------------ans: needle like
14)which propertite drawn into wires-------- ans: ductility
15)without this can not run the program….. ans: operating system
16)if train going to one station to other station ,first half of the of distance at 40km/hr than next half of the distance at 60km/hr then find the avg. Speed of train---------------km/hr
a) 55 b)50 c)55.2 ans: b
17)pyrometallurgy used on which process---------
a)roasting b)smelting c)refining
18)phosperus broze are used-----
a)bearings b)
19)hot top occurs at------------------
a)pigiron molds b) ingot molds c0contonuous molds d) ingot molds
20)decarburizing element----------------
a) c b) ni c)cr d) si
21)pvr occurs at constant ----------------------
a)temperature b)pressure c)volume
22)increases the clay containt in the molding sand then
a)permability increases b) number decreses
23)freely available metal
a)au&ag b)cu&ni
ALL THE BEST…………………
Paper Type : General - other
Test Date : 9 March 2008
Test Location : HYDERABAD
Posted By : RAMPRASAD
DRDO PAPER ON 9th MARCH AT HYDERABAD
Hai friends…… This is RAMPRASAD…..I am written the senior technical assistance’ A’ on METALLURGY (Diploma Based exam on 9/03/2008). In exam most of the questions from the p.p.m, thermo dynamics, physical metallurgy, iron making, heat treatment, foundary technology, nonferrous. Less questions from fuels &refractory, steel making, welding, material testing, mechanical metallurgy.
I am written some question( I am not written total question) and answers(only some ans) . Questions are asked only fundamentals. I think exam is very easy for fresher candates.
EXAM PATTERN:
Technical questions -- 40 marks
Aptitude questions -- 10 marks
Exam paper total object type questions.
DURATION: 1 hr
1)pine oils are used in----------------- ans: frothers
2)TTT diagram is also known as------------------
a)s-curve b)c-curve c)isothermal transformation d)all ans:d
3)Hyper eutectoid-------------------------ans: perlite+cemtite
4)In austempring process---------formed ans: Bainite
5)gun metalalloy of cu+zn+------ ans: tin
6)In nodular cast iron ----added ans: mg
7)p+f=------ans:c+2
8)line diffect------------------ans: edge dislocation
9)permanent mould casting-------ans: centrifugal casting
10)higest co-ordination number---------------ans: h.c.p
11)isobaric at constant------------------------- ans: pressure
12)when temperature and farenheit are same----ans:-40
13)acicular structure consists like--------------ans: needle like
14)which propertite drawn into wires-------- ans: ductility
15)without this can not run the program….. ans: operating system
16)if train going to one station to other station ,first half of the of distance at 40km/hr than next half of the distance at 60km/hr then find the avg. Speed of train---------------km/hr
a) 55 b)50 c)55.2 ans: b
17)pyrometallurgy used on which process---------
a)roasting b)smelting c)refining
18)phosperus broze are used-----
a)bearings b)
19)hot top occurs at------------------
a)pigiron molds b) ingot molds c0contonuous molds d) ingot molds
20)decarburizing element----------------
a) c b) ni c)cr d) si
21)pvr occurs at constant ----------------------
a)temperature b)pressure c)volume
22)increases the clay containt in the molding sand then
a)permability increases b) number decreses
23)freely available metal
a)au&ag b)cu&ni
ALL THE BEST…………………
Test Paper :7
Paper Type : Aptitude - General
Posted By : admin
DRDO Sample Questions
It contained 2 parts PART 1 - pure technical 100 ques. and Part 2 50 Ques.
Part 1 was purely technical but I was hard 2 answer part 2 general Knowledge abt 20-25ques were from maths remaining from general.They collected the question paper back. Iam herewith attaching some of the questions that noted down at hall.
If 100ns is Memory Access Time & 125 microsec is 1frame period. The no. of line that
can be supported in a Time Divison Switch is
a)125 Lines
b)625 Lines
c)525 Lines
d)465 Lines
The no. of edjes in disjoint Hamilton circuit in a complex graph with 17 edges is
a) 8
b) 9
c) 136
d) 17^2
15 persons in a club sit every day ina dinner table such that every member has different
neighbour. This arrangement will last for how many days.
Assume a system has 16MB cache mean Disk Access Time & cache Access time is 76.5
ns & 1.5 overall mean Access time us 465ms for each tripling the memory the miss rate is
halved. The memory required to bring down the mean Access time to 24ns is
a) 16 MB
b) 24 MB
c) 32 MB
d) 48 MB
Average transfer speed of a i/p serial line is minimum 25,000 Bytes & maximum 60000
Bytes. Polling Strategy adopted takes 4microsec(whether there is any i/p byte or not). It is
assured that byte that retrived from controller before next byte arrives are lost. Then the
maximum safe polling interveal is
a) 12
b) 12.33
c) 12.67
d) 32
A harddisk has a rotation speed of 4500RPM. then the latency time is
a) .4
b) .6
c) .7
d) .9
Suppose all elements above the principal diagonal od n x n matix A are zero. If non zero
elements of the lower triangular Matrix is stored in an array B with A[1][1] stored at
B[1]. The addressing formula to the nonzero element in A[i][j]=?
a) A[i][j]
b) i(j-1)/2 +i
c) j(i-1)/2 +i
d) i(i-1)/2 +j
The minumum number of comparisons requied to find the second smallest element in a
1000 element array is
a) 1008
b) 1010
c) 1999
d) 2000
The internal path length of a Bonary Tree with 10nodes is 25. The external path length is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 40
d) 45
Average No. of Comparisons required to sort 3 elements is
a) 2
b) 2.33
c) 2.67
d) 3
In a switch the mean arrival rate of packets is 800 Packets/sec and the the mean service
rate is 925 Packets/sec
a) .008 Sec
b) .08 sec
c) .8 sec
d) 1.1 sec
What is Interface Control Information?
The minumum no. of Multiplications needed to compute x^768 is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 425
d) 767
Find values for a,b,c,d
c 1 1 1
0 a 1 b
_______
1 0 d 0
(967)basex = 321base9
PART II Genreal 50 General Non-Technical[4 Options]
The area of red planet where the Mars Rover Landed?
In Which Day world Telecom Day Celebrated?
Laser is used for what?
a) Treatment of Cancer
b) Treatment of Eyes
c) Treatment of Heart
d) Treatment of Kidney
Which country is not a Member of SAARC
a) Bangladesh
b) Myanmar
c) Maldives
d) Nepal
The New Biotechnology Software intorduced by TCS is?
The New Biotechnology
Software intorduced by TCS is?
What is Wi Fi?
Which is the fastest Cruise Missile?
Paper Type : Aptitude - General
Posted By : admin
DRDO Sample Questions
It contained 2 parts PART 1 - pure technical 100 ques. and Part 2 50 Ques.
Part 1 was purely technical but I was hard 2 answer part 2 general Knowledge abt 20-25ques were from maths remaining from general.They collected the question paper back. Iam herewith attaching some of the questions that noted down at hall.
If 100ns is Memory Access Time & 125 microsec is 1frame period. The no. of line that
can be supported in a Time Divison Switch is
a)125 Lines
b)625 Lines
c)525 Lines
d)465 Lines
The no. of edjes in disjoint Hamilton circuit in a complex graph with 17 edges is
a) 8
b) 9
c) 136
d) 17^2
15 persons in a club sit every day ina dinner table such that every member has different
neighbour. This arrangement will last for how many days.
Assume a system has 16MB cache mean Disk Access Time & cache Access time is 76.5
ns & 1.5 overall mean Access time us 465ms for each tripling the memory the miss rate is
halved. The memory required to bring down the mean Access time to 24ns is
a) 16 MB
b) 24 MB
c) 32 MB
d) 48 MB
Average transfer speed of a i/p serial line is minimum 25,000 Bytes & maximum 60000
Bytes. Polling Strategy adopted takes 4microsec(whether there is any i/p byte or not). It is
assured that byte that retrived from controller before next byte arrives are lost. Then the
maximum safe polling interveal is
a) 12
b) 12.33
c) 12.67
d) 32
A harddisk has a rotation speed of 4500RPM. then the latency time is
a) .4
b) .6
c) .7
d) .9
Suppose all elements above the principal diagonal od n x n matix A are zero. If non zero
elements of the lower triangular Matrix is stored in an array B with A[1][1] stored at
B[1]. The addressing formula to the nonzero element in A[i][j]=?
a) A[i][j]
b) i(j-1)/2 +i
c) j(i-1)/2 +i
d) i(i-1)/2 +j
The minumum number of comparisons requied to find the second smallest element in a
1000 element array is
a) 1008
b) 1010
c) 1999
d) 2000
The internal path length of a Bonary Tree with 10nodes is 25. The external path length is
a) 25
b) 35
c) 40
d) 45
Average No. of Comparisons required to sort 3 elements is
a) 2
b) 2.33
c) 2.67
d) 3
In a switch the mean arrival rate of packets is 800 Packets/sec and the the mean service
rate is 925 Packets/sec
a) .008 Sec
b) .08 sec
c) .8 sec
d) 1.1 sec
What is Interface Control Information?
The minumum no. of Multiplications needed to compute x^768 is
a) 9
b) 10
c) 425
d) 767
Find values for a,b,c,d
c 1 1 1
0 a 1 b
_______
1 0 d 0
(967)basex = 321base9
PART II Genreal 50 General Non-Technical[4 Options]
The area of red planet where the Mars Rover Landed?
In Which Day world Telecom Day Celebrated?
Laser is used for what?
a) Treatment of Cancer
b) Treatment of Eyes
c) Treatment of Heart
d) Treatment of Kidney
Which country is not a Member of SAARC
a) Bangladesh
b) Myanmar
c) Maldives
d) Nepal
The New Biotechnology Software intorduced by TCS is?
The New Biotechnology
Software intorduced by TCS is?
What is Wi Fi?
Which is the fastest Cruise Missile?
Test Paper :6
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 7 September 2008
Posted By : Sruthi
DRDO PAPER ON 7TH SEPTEMBER,2008
I have attended Scientist Entry Test on 7th Sep. Hereby I am submitting paper for Electronics and Communication branch…….. Hope it helps future aspirants……..
Section- A
1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A
2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms
3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms
4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90
5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms
6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX
7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)
8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC
9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15
10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]
11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125
12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3
13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms
14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V
15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms
16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET
17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}
18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s
19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor
20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.
21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02
22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode
23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV
24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82
Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.
27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA
28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter
29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier
30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA
31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier
32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β
33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic
34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02
35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave
36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz
37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is
a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V
38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V
39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44
40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi
41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯
42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD
43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures
44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C
45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.
46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region
47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA
48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter
49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register
50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory
51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])
52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t
53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable
54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system
55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function
56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)
57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| < 2 c) 0.5<|z|<2 d) the entire z-plane
58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w c) a constant and τg is proportional to w d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w
59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz
60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5
62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time
63. The signal flow graph of the given network is
64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10
65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5
66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is
67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is
68. If A = [2 0 0 2], then e^At is given by
a) [e^2t 0 0 e^2t] b) [e^-2t 0 0 e^-2t] c) [e^t/2 0 0 e^t/2] d) [e^-t/2 0 0 e^-t/2]
69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180
70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure
71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1
73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W
74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage
75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate
76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal
a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector
77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct
c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct
78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector
d) product demodulator
79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4
80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)
81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T
82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA
83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel
84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)
85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2
86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2
87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps
88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ
89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds
90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0
91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm
93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m
94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms
95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90
0.9 L90 0.2 L0]
Is
a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal d) neither reciprocal nor lossless
96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz
97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45
98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction
99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2
100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.
SECTION – B
101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP
102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level
103. In the month of July, it is winter in
a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London
104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister
105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10
106.DRDO was formed in
a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958
107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of
a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC
108. DARL 202 is a variety of
a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato
109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile
b) a quick reaction surface to air missile
c) an intermediate range ballistic missile
d) a supersonic cruise missile
110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device
111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is
a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5
112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x
113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x
115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)……..
a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1
117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for
a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only
118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A
-sin A cos A] is
a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A
sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]
119. Consider the function f(x) defined as
F(x) = 3x-1, x<0
0, x=0
2x+5, x>0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1
120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8
121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation
122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11
123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3
124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0
125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1
126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may
129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods
131. The antonym of the word TRANSIENT is
a) certain b) close c) permanent d) fast
132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water
133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for
134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard
135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.
136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable
137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365
138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53
139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.
140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R
141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR
142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13
143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER
144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor
All the best!!
Shilpa
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 7 September 2008
Posted By : Sruthi
DRDO PAPER ON 7TH SEPTEMBER,2008
I have attended Scientist Entry Test on 7th Sep. Hereby I am submitting paper for Electronics and Communication branch…….. Hope it helps future aspirants……..
Section- A
1.The current I in the given network.
a) 1A b) 3A c) 5A d) 7A
2.For the Delta- Wye transformation in given figure, the value of the resistance R is.
a) 1/3 ohms b) 2/3 ohms c) 3/2 ohms d) 3 ohms
3.In the given network, the Thevenin’s equivalent as seen by the load resistance Rl is
a) V=10 V, R= 2ohms b) V=10V, R=3 ohms c) V=15V, R= 2ohms d) V=15V, R=3 ohms
4.The current I in a series R-L circuit with R=10 ohms and L=20mH is given by i=2sin500t A. If v is the voltage across the R-L combination then i
a) lags v by 45 degree b) is in-phase with v c) leads v by 45 d) lags v by 90
5.In thr given network, the mesh current I and the input impedance seen by the 50 V source, respectively, are
a) 125/13 A and 11/8 ohms b) 150/13 A and 13/8 ohms c) 150/13 A and 11/8 ohms d) 125/13 A and 13/8 ohms
6.A voltage sourcehaving a source impedance Z = R + jX can deliver maximum Average power to a load impedance Z, when
a) Z = R + jX b) Z = R c) Z = jX d) Z = R –jX
7.In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at t=0. Assuming that there is no initial Charge in the capacitor, the current i(t) for t>0 is
a) V/R e^ (-2t/RC) b) V/R e^ (-t/RC) c) V/2R e^ (-2t/RC) d) V/2R e^ (-t/RC)
8.For the circuit in given figure, if e(t) is a ramp signal, the steady state value of the Output voltage v(t) is
a) 0 b) LC c) R/L d) RC
9.For the series RLC circuit in given figure, if w=1000 rad/sec, then the current I (in Amperes) is
a) 2 ∟-15 b) 2 ∟15 c) √2∟-15 d) √2∟15
10.The Y-parameter matrix (mA/V) of the two-port given network is
a) [2 -1 -1 2] b) [2 1 -1 2] c) [1 -2 -1 2] d) [2 1 1 2]
11.The maximum number of trees of the given graph is
a) 16 b) 25 c) 100 d) 125
12.Given figure shows a graph and one of its trees. Corresponding to the tree, the group of branches that CAN NOT constitute a fundamental cut set is
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,4,6,8,3 c) 5,6,8,3 d) 4,6,7,3
13.The Y-parameter matrix of a network is given by Y=[1 1 -1 1] A/V. The Z11 parameter of the same network is
a) ½ ohms b) 1/√2 ohms c) 1 ohms d) 2 ohms
14.For the given circuit, the switch was kept closed for a long time before opening it at t=0. The voltage v(0+) is
a) -10 V b) -1 V c) 0V d) 10 V
15.The input impedance of a series RLC circuit operating at frequency W=√2w, w being the resonant frequency, is
a) R-j(wL/√2) ohms b) R+j(wL/√2) ohms c) R-j√2wL ohms d) R-j√2wL ohms
16.The threshold voltage V is negative for
a) an n-channel enhancement MOSFET b) an n-channel depletion MOSFET c) an p-channel depletion MOSFET d) an p-channel JFET
17.At a given temperature, a semiconductor with intrinsic carrier concentration ni= 10 ^ 16 / m^3 is doped with a donor dopant of concentration Nd = 10 ^ 26 /m^3. Temperature remaining the same, the hole concentration in the doped semiconductor is
a) 10 ^ 26 /m^3 b) 10 ^ 16 /m^3 c) 10 ^ 14 /m^3 d) 10 ^ 6 /m^3}
18.At room temperature, the diffusion and drift constants for holes in a P-type semiconductor were measured to be Dp = 10 cm^2/s and µp = 1200 cm^2/V-s, respectively. If the diffusion constant of electrons in an N-type semiconductor at the same temperature is Dn = 20 cm^2/s, the drift constant for electrons in it is
a) µn = 2400 cm^2/V-s b) µn = 1200 cm^2/V-s c) µn = 1000 cm^2/V-s d) µn = 600 cm^2/V-s
19.A common LED is made up of
a) intrinsic semiconductor b) direct semiconductor c) degenerate semiconductor d) indirect semiconductor
20.When operating as a voltage regulator, the breakdown in a Zener diode occurs due to the
a) tunneling effect b) avalanche breakdown c) impact ionization d) excess heating of the junction.
21.If the common base DC current gain of a BJT is 0.98, its common emitter DC current gain is
a) 51 b) 49 c) 1 d) 0.02
22.Negative resistance characteristics is exhibited by a
a) Zener diode b) Schottky diode c) photo diode d) Tunnel diode
23.Let En and Ep, respectively, represent the effective Fermi levels for electrons and holes during current conduction in a semiconductor. For lasing to occur in a P-N junction of band-gap energy 1.2 eV, (En - Ep) should be
a) greater than 1.2eV b) less than 1.2eV c) equal to 1.1eV d) equal to 0.7eV
24.In a P-well fabrication process, the substrate is
a) N-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
b) P-type semiconductor and is used to build P-channel MOSFET
c) N-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
d) P-type semiconductor and is used to build N-channel MOSFET
25.In a MOS capacitor with n-type silicon substrate, the Fermi potential ¢ = -0.41 V and the flat-band voltage Vfb = 0V. The value of the threshold voltage Vt is
a) -0.82 V b) -0.41 V c) 0.41 V d) 0.82
Refer given figure for question 26 and 27. Assume D1 and D2 to be ideal diodes.
26.Which one of the following statements is true?
a) Both D1 and D2 are ON.
b) Both D1 and D2 are OFF.
c) D1 is ON and D2 is OFF.
d) D2 is ON and D1 is OFF.
27.Values of Vo and I, respectively, are
a) 2V and 1.1 mA b) 0V and 0 mA c) -2V and 0.7 mA d) 4V and 1.3 mA
28.In a BJT CASCODE pair, a
a) common emitter follows a common base
b) common base follows a common collector
c) common collector follows a common base
d) common base follows a common emitter
29.Inside a 741 op-amp, the last functional block is a
a) differential amplifier b) level shifter c) class-A power amplifier d) class-AB power amplifier
30.For the MOSFET in the given circuit, the threshold voltage Vt = 0.5V, the process parameter KP = 150 µA/V^2 and W/L = 10. The values of Vd and Id, respectively, are
a) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 1 mA
b) Vd = 4.5 V and Id = 0.5 mA
c) Vd = 4.8 V and Id = 0.4 mA
d) Vd = 6 V and Id = 0 mA
31.A negative feedback is applied to an amplifier with the feedback voltage proportional to the output current. This feedback increases the
a) input impedance of the amplifier b) output impedance of the amplifier c) distortion in the amplifier d) gain of the amplifier
32.The early effect in a BJT is modeled by the small signal parameter
a) r0 b) r∏ c) gm d) β
33.For a given filter order, which one of the following type of filters has the least amount of ripple both in pass-band and stop-band?
a) Chebyshev type I b) Bessel c) Chebyshev type II d) Elliptic
34.For a practical feedback circuit to have sustained oscillation, the most appropriate value of the loop gain T is
a) 1 b) -1 c) -1.02 d) 1.02
35.Assume the op-amps in given figure to be ideal. If the input signal vi is a sinusoid of 2V peak-to-peak and with zero DC component, the output signal vo is a
a) sine wave b) square wave c) pulse train d) triangular wave
36.In a common source amplifier, the mid-band voltage gain is 40 dB and the upper cutoff frequency is 150kHz. Assuming single pole approximation for the amplifier the unity gain frequency fT is
a) 6 MHz b) 15 MHz c) 150 MHz d) 1.5 GHz
37.An op-amp is ideal except for finite gain and CMRR. Given the open loop differential gain Ad=2000, CMRR = 1000, the input to the noninverting terminal is 5.002 V and the input to the inverting terminal is 4.999 V, the output voltage of the op-amp is
a) 14 V b) 24 V c) -6 V c) -8 V
38.The op-amp in the circuit in given figure has a non-zero DC offset. The steady state value of the output voltage Vo is
a) –RC dvs(t)/ dt b) – (1/RC)|vs(t)dt c) –V d) +V
39.For the circuit in given figure, if the value of the capacitor C is doubled, the duty-cycle of the output waveform Vo
a) increases by a factor of 2 b) increases by a factor of 1.44 c) remains constant d) decreases by a factor of 1.44
40.Assume the op-amp in the given circuit to be ideal. The value of the output voltage Vo is
a) 3.2 Vi b) 4 Vi c) 9 Vi d) 10 Vi
41.The complement of the Boolean expression F = (X + Y¯ + Z)(X¯ + Z¯)(X + Y) is
a) XYZ+XZ¯+Y¯Z b) X¯YZ¯+XZ+X¯Y¯ c) X¯YZ¯+XZ+YZ d) XYZ+X¯Y¯
42.The Boolean function F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,6,8,13,14) with don’t care conditions d(A,B,C,D) = ∑(2,4,10) can be simplified to
a) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ b) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯D c) F = AB¯D¯+CD¯+ABC¯ d) F = B¯D¯+CD¯+ABCD
43.The Boolean function F = A¯D¯+B¯D can be realized by one of the following figures
44. For the multiplexer in given figure, the Boolean expression for the output Y is
a) A¯B¯+B¯C¯+AC b) AB¯+B¯C¯+AC¯ c) AB¯+B¯C+AC d) A¯B¯+B¯C+A¯C
45. Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) Both latch and flip-flop are edge triggered.
b) A latch is level triggered and a flip-flop is edge triggered.
c) A latch is edge triggered and a flip-flop is level triggered.
d) Both latch and flip-flop are level triggered.
46. In a schottky TTL gate, the Schottky diode
e) increases the propagation delay
f) increases the power consumption
g) prevents saturation of the output transistor
h) keeps the transistor in cutoff region
47. For which one of the following ultraviolet light is used to erase the stored contents
a) PROM b) EPROM c) EEPROM d) PLA
48. Which one of the following is NOT a synchronous counter
a) Johnson counter b) Ring counter c) Ripple counter d) Up-down counter
49. In 8085 microprocessor, the accumulator is a
a) 4 bit register b) 8 bit register c) 16 bit register d) 32 bit register
50. In the register indirect addressing mode of 8085 microprocessor, data is stored
a) at the address contained in the register pair
b) in the register pair
c) in the accumulator
d) in a fixed location of the memory
51. The output w[n] of the system shown in given figure is
a) x[n] b) x[n-1] c) x[n] – x[n-1] d) 0.5(x[n-1] + x[n])
52. Which one of the following is a periodic signal
a) x(t) = 2 e^j(t+(π/4)) b) x[n] = u[n] + u[-n] c) x[n] = ∑{∂[n-4k]-∂[n-1-4k]} where k = -∞to ∞ d) x(t) = e^ (-1+j)t
53. If the input-output relation of a system is y(t) = ∫x(t) dt where t = -∞ to 2t
a) linear, time-invariant and unstable
b) linear, non-causal and unstable
c) linear, causal and time invariant
d) non-causal, time invariant and unstable
54. Which one of the can be the magnitude of the transfer function | H(jw) | of a causal system
55. Consider the function H(jw) = H1(w) + jH2(w), where H1(w) is an odd function and H2(w) is an even function. The inverse Fourier transform of H(jw) is
a) a real and odd function
b) a complex function
c) a purely imaginary function
d) a purely imaginary and odd function
56. The laplace transform of given signal is
a) –A((1-e^cs)/s) b) A((1-e^cs)/s) c) A((1-e^-cs)/s) d) –A((1-e^-cs)/s)
57. If X(z) is the z-transform of x[n] = (1/2)^ |n|, the ROC of X(z) is
a) |z| > 2 b) |z| < 2 c) 0.5<|z|<2 d) the entire z-plane
58. In a linear phase system, τg the group delay and τp the phase delay are
a) constant and equal to each other b) τg is a constant and τp is proportional to w c) a constant and τg is proportional to w d) τg is proportional to w and τp is proportional to w
59. A signal m(t), band-limited to a maximum frequency of 20 kHz is sampled at a frequency fs kHz to generate s(t). An ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency 37 kHz is used to reconstruct m(t) from s(t). The maximum value of fs required to reconstruct m(t) without distortion is
a) 20 kHz b) 40kHz c) 57 kHz d) 77 kHz
60. If the signal x(t) shown in given figure is fed to an LTI system having impulse response h(t) as shown in given figure, the value of the DC component present in the output y(t) is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
61. The characteristic equation of an LTI system is given as s^3 + Ks^2 + 5s + 10. When the system is marginally stable, the value of K and the sustained oscillation frequency w, respectively, are
a) 2 and 5 b) 0.5 and √5 c) 0.5 and 5 d) 2 and √5
62. The time required for the response of a linear time-variant system to reach half the final value for the first time is
a) delay time b) peak time c) rise time d) decay time
63. The signal flow graph of the given network is
64. Let c(t) be the unit step response of a system with transfer function K(s+a)/(s+K). If c(0+)=2 and c(∞)=10, then the values of a and K, respectively, are
a) 2 and 10 b) -2 and 10 c) 10 and 2 d) 2 and -10
65. The loop transfer function of an LTI system is G(s)H(s)= K(s+1)(s+5) / s(s+2)(s+3). For K>0, the point on the real axis that DOES NOT belong to the root locus of the system is
a) -0.5 b) -2.5 c) -3.5 d) -5.5
66. The state space equation of the circuit shown in given figure for x1=v0, x2=I is
67. The open loop gain of a unity feedback system is G(s)=wn^2 / s(s+2wn). The unit step response c(t) of the system is
68. If A = [2 0 0 2], then e^At is given by
a) [e^2t 0 0 e^2t] b) [e^-2t 0 0 e^-2t] c) [e^t/2 0 0 e^t/2] d) [e^-t/2 0 0 e^-t/2]
69. The angles of the asymptotes of the root loci of the equation s^3 + 5s^2 + (K+2)s + K = 0, for 0<=K<∞, are
a) 0 and 270 b) 0 and 180 c) 90 and 270 d) 90 and 180
70. The bode plot corresponding to a proportional derivative controller is the one shown in given figure
71. In frequency modulation, the instantaneous
a) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
b) amplitude of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
c) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous amplitude of the message signal
d) frequency of the carrier signal is varied with the instantaneous frequency of the message signal
72. If X is a zero mean Gaussian random variable, then P{X<=0} is
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1
73. If a single-tone amplitude modulated signal at a modulation depth of 100% transmits a total power of 15W, the power in the carrier component is
a) 5W b) 10W c) 12W d) 15W
74. In a superheterodyne receiver, rejection of the image signal can be achieved by using a
a) higher local oscillatorn frequency b) crystal oscillator c) narrow band IF filter d) narrow band filter at RF stage
75. The number of bbits per sample of a PCM system depends upon the
a) sampler type b) quantizer type c) number of levels of the quantizer d) sampling rate
76. Which one of the following is used for the detection of AM-DSB-SC signal
a) Ratio detector b) Foster-Seeley discriminator c) Product demodulator d) Balanced-slpoe detector
77. Which one of the following signal pairs can represent a BPSK signal
a) A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
b) A cos2πfct, - A sinπfct
c) - A cos2πfct, A sinπfct
d) A sin2πfct, A cosπfct
78. Which one of the following can be used for the detection of the noncoherent BPSK signal
a) matched filter b) phase-locked loop c) envelope detector
d) product demodulator
79. Bits of duration Tb are to be transmitted using a BPSK modulation with a carrier of frequency Fc Hz. The power spectral density of the transmitted signal has the first null at the normalized frequency
a) |F – Fc|Tb = 0 b) |F – Fc|Tb = 1 c) |F – Fc|Tb = 2 d) |F – Fc|Tb = 4
80. The probability of bit error of a BPSK modulation scheme, with transmitted signal energy per bit Eb, in an additive white Gaussian noise channel having one-sided power spectral density N0, is
a) (1/2) erfc(Eb/2N0) b) (1/2) erfc√(Eb/2N0) c) (1/2) erfc(Eb/N0) d) (1/2) erfc√ (Eb/N0)
81. For a given transmitted pulse p(t), 0<=t<=T, the impulse response of a filter matched to the received signal is
a) –p(t-T), 0<=t<=T b) –p(T-t), 0<=t<=T c) p(t-T), 0<=t<=T d) p(T-t), 0<=t<=T
82. The multiple access communication scheme in which each user is allocated the full available channel spectrum for a specified duration of time is known as
a) CDMA b) FDMA c) TDMA d) MC-CDMA
83. GSM system uses TDMA with
a) 32 users per channel b) 16 users per channel c) 8 users per channel d) 4 users per channel
84. If Rx(τ) is the auto-correlation function of a zero-mean wide-sense stationary random process X, then which one of the following is NOT true?
a) Rx(τ) = Rx(-τ) b) Rx(τ) = -Rx(-τ) c) σx^2 = Rx(0) d) |Rx(τ)| <=Rx(0)
85. If E denotes the expectation operator, then E[X-EX]^3 of a random variable X is
a) EX^3 – E^3X b) EX^3 + 2E^3X – 3EX Ex^2 c) 3EX^3 – E^3X d) 2EX^3 + E^3X – 3EX EX^2
86. A discrete memoryless source produces symbols m1,m2,m3 and m4 with probabilities 1/2, 1/4 , 1/8 and 1/8, respectively. The entropy of the source is
a) ¼ b) 1 c) 7/4 d) 2
87. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and bandwidth of 1200 Hz. The maximum data rate that can be sent through the channel with arbitrary low probability of error is
a) 600 bps b) 1200 bps c) 4800 bps d) 7200 bps
88. For the vectors A = X ax + Y ay and B = Z az, del . (A X B) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) XZ d) YZ
89. Which one of the following relations represents Strokes’ theorem (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) ∫s del X A.ds = 0 b) ∫L A.dl = ∫s del X A.ds c) ∫s A X dS = -∫v (del X A)dv d) ∫v del.Adv = ∫s A.ds
90. Which one of the following relations is not correct (symbols have their usual meaning)?
a) del X E = - ∂B/∂t b) del X H = J + ∂E/∂t c) del.D = ρv d) del.B = 0
91. The electric field component of a uniform plane wave propagating in a lossless magnetic dielectric medium is given by E(t,z)=ax 5cos(10^9 t – 20/3 z)V/m. If η0 represents the intrinsic impedance of the free space, the corresponding magnetic field component is given by
a) H(t,z)= ay 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
b) H(t,z)= ay 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
c) H(t,z)= az 5/2 η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
d) H(t,z)= az 10/ η0 cos(10^9t – 20/3 z)A/m
92. The skin depth of a non-magnetic conducting material at 100 MHz is 0.15 mm. The distance which a plane wave of frequency 10 GHz travels in this material before its amplitude reduces by a factor of e^-1 is
a) 0.0015 mm b) 0.015 mm c) 0.15 mm d) 1.5 mm
93. A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 100 ohms and an inductance per unit length of 1 μH/m. If the line is operated at 1 GHz, the propagation constant β is
a) 2π rad/m b) 20π/3 rad/m c) 20π rad/m d) 2π *10^5 rad/m
94. When a load resistance Rl is connected to a lossless transmission line of characteristic impedance 75 ohms, it results in a VSWR of 2. The load resistance is
a) 100 ohms b) 75√2 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 150 ohms
95. A two-port network characterized by the S-parameter matrix, [S] = [0.3 L0 0.9 L90
0.9 L90 0.2 L0]
Is
a) both reciprocal and lossless b) reciprocal, but not lossless c) lossless, but not reciprocal d) neither reciprocal nor lossless
96. A lossless air filled rectangular waveguide has internal dimensions of a cm * b cm. If a=2b and the cutoff frequency of the TE02 mode is 12 GHz, the cutoff frequency of the dominant mode is
a) 1 GHz b) 3 GHz c) 6 GHz d) 9 GHz
97. A Hertzian dipole antenna is placed at the origin of a coordinate system and it is oriented along z-axis. In which one of the following planes the radiation pattern of the antenna has a circular shape?
a) x=0 b) y=0 c) z=0 d) ø=45
98. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Antenna losses are taken into account in calculating its power gain
b) For an antenna which does not dissipate any power, the directive gain and the power gain are equal
c) Directivity of an antenna is the maximum value of its directive gain
d) The directive gain of a Hertzian dipole is same in all direction
99. The directivity of a half dipole antenna is
a) 1.0 b) 1.5 c) 1.64 d) 2
100. Which one of the following is not true for a step index optical fibre?
a) It can support multiple modes
b) HE11 mode is its lowest order mode
c) The refractive index of the cladding is higher than that of the core
d) At a given wavelength, single mode operation is possible by proper choice of core diameter, core and cladding refractive indices.
SECTION – B
101. Sarnath is situated in the state of
a) MP b) Bihar c) Punjab d) UP
102. Green house effect is due to the increase of atmospheric
a) CO2 level b) SO2 level c) CO level d) N2 level
103. In the month of July, it is winter in
a) New York b) Beijing c) Sydney d) London
104. The chairman of the Planning commission of India is
a) The prime minister b) The vice-president c) The union finance minister d) The union commerce minister
105. The satellite launch vehicle that placed a number of satellites ito orbit in May 2008 is
a) PSLV-C7 b) PSLV-C8 c) PSLV-C9 d) PSLV-C10
106.DRDO was formed in
a) 1947 b) 1950 c) 1954 d) 1958
107. SAMYUKTA is developed for the use of
a) Navy b) Army c) Air force d) RAC
108. DARL 202 is a variety of
a) pea b) garlic c) capsicum d) tomato
109. TRISHUL is
a) a surface to surface battlefield missile
b) a quick reaction surface to air missile
c) an intermediate range ballistic missile
d) a supersonic cruise missile
110. HUMSA is a
a) sonar b) tank c) mine d) night vision device
111. The value of 1+2i / 3-4i + 2-I / 5i , where i^2 is -1, is
a) -5/2 b) 5/2 c) 2/5 d) -2/5
112. The particular solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 2 dy/dx + 5y = 0 satisfying the conditions y(0)=0 and y’(0)=1 is
a) y=1/2 e^-x cos2x b) y=1/2 e^-x sin4x c) y=1/2 e^-x sin2x d) y=1/2 e^-x cos4x
113. For the vectors A=3i-2j+k and B=2i-k, the value of (A*B).A is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
114. The orthogonal trajectory of the family of curves x^2-y^2 = a (where a is a constant) and passing through the point (1,1) is
a) y=-1/x b) y=1/x c) y=-x d) y=x
115. The value of the line integral ∫ y^2 dx + 2xydy over the curve x=accost, y=asint is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
116. The n-th partial sum of the infinite series 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4+……1/n*(n+1)……..
a) 1/n+1 b) n+2/n+1 c) n/n+1 d) n-1/n+1
117. The complex-valued function f(z)=e^z is analytic for
a) no z b) all z c) real z only d) imaginary z only
118. The inverse of the matrix [ cos A sin A
-sin A cos A] is
a) [ -cos A Sin A b) [cos A sin A} c) [cos A -sin A d) [cos A -sin A
sin A cos A] sin A -cos A] -sin A cos A] sin A cos A]
119. Consider the function f(x) defined as
F(x) = 3x-1, x<0
0, x=0
2x+5, x>0
In the following table, List I shows 4 expressions for limits of f(x) and List II indicates the values of the limits
List I List II
P.Lim x->2 f(x) 1. -1
Q.Lim x->0+ f(x) 2. 9
R.Lim x->0- f(x) 3. -10
S.Lim x->-3 f(x) 4. 5
The correct matches are
a) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 B) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1 C) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3 D) P-4,Q-2,R-3,S-1
120. Two events A and B with probability 0.5 and 0.7, respectively, have joint probability of 0.4. The probability that neither A nor B happens is
a) 0.2 b) 0.4 c) 0.6 d) 0.8
121. Consider the differential equation
X^2 d^2/dx^2 + x dy/dx + (x^2 - 4)y = 0. The statement which is not true for it is
a) It is a linear second order ordinary differential equation
b) It can not be reduced to a differential equation with constant coefficients
c) X=0 is a regular singular point
d) It is a non-homogeneous second order ordinary differential equation
122. The sum of two numbers is 16 and the sum of their squares is a minimum. The two numbers are
a) 10,6 b) 9,7 c) 8,8 d) 5,11
123. The value of the definite integral 0∫(π/2)^(1/3) x^2 sin(x^3)dx is
a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1 d) 1/3
124. A circle C2 is concentric with the circle C1 : x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -12 =0 and has a radius twice that of C1. The equation of the circle C2 is
a) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -13 =0 b) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -87 =0 c) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -100 =0 d) x^2 + y^2 -4x +6y -88 =0
125. Consider the quadratic equation x^2 + px + q =0. If p and q are roots of the equation, the values of p and q are
a) p=0, q=0 only b) p=1, q=-2 only c) p=0, q=0 and p=1, q=-2 d) p=0, q=0 and p=-2, q=1
126. Consider the list of words: etiquette, accommodate, forty, exaggerate, continous, independent, receipt. The number of misspelt words are
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
127. Consider the following sentences
1. A few friends he has are all very rich.
2. Do not insult the weak.
3. The later of the two persons was more interesting.
4. All the informations were correct.
Out of these sentences, the grammatically correct sentence is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
128. The appropriate auxiliary verb to fill in the blank of the sentence “Gandhi knew that he __ soon be jailed.”is
a) would b) will c) shall d) may
129. The number of missing punctuation marks in the sentence “Rajesh along with Amit went to the market.”is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
130. The meaning of the word PLAGIARISM is
a) theft of public money b) theft of ideas c) belief in one god d) belief in many gods
131. The antonym of the word TRANSIENT is
a) certain b) close c) permanent d) fast
132. ACROPHOBIA is the abnormal fear of
a) open spaces b) height c) fire d) water
133. The appropriate pair of prepositions to fill in the blank in the sentence “He was angry __ me, because my remarks were aimed __ him.”is
a) at,to b) with, at c) with, to d) at, for
134. The appropriate word(s) to fill up the blank in the sentence “ I remember __ voices in the middle of the night.”is (are)
a) hear b) to hear c) hearing d) heard
135. The passive voice form of the sentence “I have known him for a long time.”is
a) He is known to me for a long time.
b) He is known by me for a long time.
c) He has been known to me for a long time.
d) He has been known by me for a long time.
136. If kennel is to a dog, then __ is to a hen.
a) nest b) coop c) hole d) stable
137. If NATION is to 5236765, then NOTION is to
a) 573675 b) 563765 c) 576375 d) 557365
138. The next two numbers of the series 3,5,11,21 are
a) 34 and 52 b) 34 and 53 c) 35 and 52 d) 35 and 53
139. A, B and C are three places in India with longitudes 80E, 85 E and 90 E respectively. Which one of the following statements about the local times of the places is true?
a) Local time of C is ahead of that of B.
b) Local time of B is ahead of that of C.
c) Local time of A is ahead of that of C.
d) A, B and C all have the same local time.
140. In this question, notations +, / and * are used as follows
A + B means A is the husband of B.
A / B means A is the sister of B.
A * B means A is the son of B.
With these relations, the relationship denoted by P / Q * R is
a) P is son of R
b) P is daughter of R
c) P is uncle of R
d) P is father of R
141. If DELHI is written as EDHIL, then PARIS is written as
a) APRIS b) SARIP c) SAPIR d) APISR
142. The number of prime numbers between 10 and 50 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13
143. The odd one in the list : LAN, TCP/IP, HACKER and KILLER is
a) LAN b) TCP/IP c) KILLER d) HACKER
144. SAW is to carpenter as SCALPEL is to
a) surgeon b) mason c) plumber d) tailor
All the best!!
Shilpa
Test Paper :5
Paper Type : General - other
Posted By : admin
DRDO SAMPLE INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
1) Coldest planet:Pluto
2) INS Shivali is the first:
3) Which one of the following was NOT indegineously developed?:Prithvi/Akash/Agni
4) Full form of SARS
5) Anthrax is a :Virus/Bacteria/.../...
6) Dakshina Gangothri is:Ganga's origin/Indian camp @ antartica/.../...
7) Which of the following is a chemical weapon:Mustard Gas/Marsh Gas/.../...
8) A question based on Coding and Decoding
9) Another question similar to above
10) Question on series completion
11) Another series completion question
12) Where is Institute of Forensic Science?:Hyderabad
13) A G.K question based on X and Y chromosomes in males and females
Sample technical questions asked in test last year in CSE :
1) Banker's algorithm is used for: Deadlock Avoidance
2) A LOT of questions were based on generating strings from a given grammar.
3) A circle(dot) shown in the PCB is:Vcc/Grnd/Pin 1/Pin 14
4) Program Segment Prefix in MS-DOS 5.0 is:
5) Some IP addresses were given and the question was to select the private addess from it(?)
6) 10Base2 and 10Base5 wires refers to:
7) A question on sliding-window protocol
8) Which of the following require a driver?:disk/cache/ram/cpu
9) A LOT of mathematical questions which were asked from calculus,trigonometry...
The questions asked in ECE were mainly from Control Systems, Communications
EMT and microprocessor
Make sure that u know the fundas of microprocessors useful in interview also: see if u know these questions
1. Which type of architecture 8085 has?
2. How many memory locations can be addressed by a microprocessor with 14 address lines?
3. 8085 is how many bit microprocessor?
4. Why is data bus bi-directional?
5. What is the function of accumulator?
6. What is flag, bus?
7. What are tri-state devices and why they are essential in a bus oriented system?
8. Why are program counter and stack pointer 16-bit registers?
9. What does it mean by embedded system?
10. What are the different addressing modes in 8085?
11.What is the difference between MOV and MVI?
12. What are the functions of RIM, SIM, IN?
13. What is the immediate addressing mode?
14. What are the different flags in 8085?
15. What happens during DMA transfer?
16. What do you mean by wait state? What is its need?
17. What is PSW?
18. What is ALE? Explain the functions of ALE in 8085.
19. What is a program counter? What is its use?
20. What is an interrupt?
21. Which line will be activated when an output device require attention from CPU?
Then comes the interview questions asked in ECE interview were fundamental.Qustions asked in my interview were:
Director
1. Which college and university are you coming from?
2. Did you appear for GATE? Why are you not interested in higher studies?
3. Did you appear for IES?
4. Did you appear for any other board interview of public sector?
5. The subjects you have learned in college can be divided into three- basic electronics, communi-cation and digital logic. Tell me any five subjects you like.
(I told radar and navigational aids, electronic warfare, satellite communication, biomedical instrumentation, fuzzy electronics and basic digital electronics as my subjects)
Board member1 (QUESTION LEVEL- MODERATE)
1. Write the truth table for full adder and implement it in NAND gate only.
2. What's the difference between looping 0s and 1s in K map?
3. Difference between microprocessor and micro controller
4. Microprocessors you are familiar with
5. How will you send and receive data to a micro-processor? (One method is I/O mapped I/O which is the other one?)
6. Radar range equation?
7. Does the radar range depend upon the frequency of the signal transmitted?
8. What is Doppler shift? What is its importance?
BOARD MEMBER -2 QUESTION LEVEL- TOUGH)
1. I will make two fuzzy statements. Pencil is long. Table is long. What is the term long signify?
2. What is a membership function?
3. What are the design criteria for very low frequency amplifier?
4. Can you measure distance with the help of CW radar? If so how?
5. How will you design a stable oscillator? (Not with crystal oscillator because temperature affects it)
6. You have designed an amplifier. After few days it is found that its gain have changed. What might be the reason?
BOARD MEMBER-3 (QUESTION LEVEL- MODERATE)
1. A plane is moving in a circular path around the transmitter of the radar. Will there be Doppler shift detected in the radar?
2. State Keplers laws
3. Why there is more geo synchronous satellite?
4. The angular difference between two satellites is 2 degree. What is the maximum number of satellites needed to cover the whole earth?
5. What is the minimum number of satellites needed to cover the whole earth?
BOARD MEMBER-4 QUESTION LEVEL- MODERATE)
1. Which is the law of conservation involved in the second of Keplers?
2. Why do you explain elliptical orbit while stating Kepler's law? Why not circular orbit?
3. What are the advantages of optical communication?
4. What are the invasive and non-invasive methods of instrumentation?
For CS guys they started with this question: What is a key board? Where u will connec? What will happen if you press the keys?..
For maths guys they asked some questions on series.. I don't know muchSome guys were selected just by describing the final year project.
1. How can you design a phase detector using a XOR gate?
2. Questions abt differentiator and integrator. What will happen if we increase/decrease the values of R/C?
3. how will a low/high pass filters behave to different signals –ramp, pulse etc
4. questions on flip flops
5. Johnson counter
6. Questions on microprocessors- what is SIM?
7. Abt your project. What will happen when this/that happens to your project?
8. Radar, antenna and satellite communication.
9. Which is the first/latest communication satellite?
10. What is apogee /perigee?
Paper Type : General - other
Posted By : admin
DRDO SAMPLE INTERVIEW QUESTIONS
1) Coldest planet:Pluto
2) INS Shivali is the first:
3) Which one of the following was NOT indegineously developed?:Prithvi/Akash/Agni
4) Full form of SARS
5) Anthrax is a :Virus/Bacteria/.../...
6) Dakshina Gangothri is:Ganga's origin/Indian camp @ antartica/.../...
7) Which of the following is a chemical weapon:Mustard Gas/Marsh Gas/.../...
8) A question based on Coding and Decoding
9) Another question similar to above
10) Question on series completion
11) Another series completion question
12) Where is Institute of Forensic Science?:Hyderabad
13) A G.K question based on X and Y chromosomes in males and females
Sample technical questions asked in test last year in CSE :
1) Banker's algorithm is used for: Deadlock Avoidance
2) A LOT of questions were based on generating strings from a given grammar.
3) A circle(dot) shown in the PCB is:Vcc/Grnd/Pin 1/Pin 14
4) Program Segment Prefix in MS-DOS 5.0 is:
5) Some IP addresses were given and the question was to select the private addess from it(?)
6) 10Base2 and 10Base5 wires refers to:
7) A question on sliding-window protocol
8) Which of the following require a driver?:disk/cache/ram/cpu
9) A LOT of mathematical questions which were asked from calculus,trigonometry...
The questions asked in ECE were mainly from Control Systems, Communications
EMT and microprocessor
Make sure that u know the fundas of microprocessors useful in interview also: see if u know these questions
1. Which type of architecture 8085 has?
2. How many memory locations can be addressed by a microprocessor with 14 address lines?
3. 8085 is how many bit microprocessor?
4. Why is data bus bi-directional?
5. What is the function of accumulator?
6. What is flag, bus?
7. What are tri-state devices and why they are essential in a bus oriented system?
8. Why are program counter and stack pointer 16-bit registers?
9. What does it mean by embedded system?
10. What are the different addressing modes in 8085?
11.What is the difference between MOV and MVI?
12. What are the functions of RIM, SIM, IN?
13. What is the immediate addressing mode?
14. What are the different flags in 8085?
15. What happens during DMA transfer?
16. What do you mean by wait state? What is its need?
17. What is PSW?
18. What is ALE? Explain the functions of ALE in 8085.
19. What is a program counter? What is its use?
20. What is an interrupt?
21. Which line will be activated when an output device require attention from CPU?
Then comes the interview questions asked in ECE interview were fundamental.Qustions asked in my interview were:
Director
1. Which college and university are you coming from?
2. Did you appear for GATE? Why are you not interested in higher studies?
3. Did you appear for IES?
4. Did you appear for any other board interview of public sector?
5. The subjects you have learned in college can be divided into three- basic electronics, communi-cation and digital logic. Tell me any five subjects you like.
(I told radar and navigational aids, electronic warfare, satellite communication, biomedical instrumentation, fuzzy electronics and basic digital electronics as my subjects)
Board member1 (QUESTION LEVEL- MODERATE)
1. Write the truth table for full adder and implement it in NAND gate only.
2. What's the difference between looping 0s and 1s in K map?
3. Difference between microprocessor and micro controller
4. Microprocessors you are familiar with
5. How will you send and receive data to a micro-processor? (One method is I/O mapped I/O which is the other one?)
6. Radar range equation?
7. Does the radar range depend upon the frequency of the signal transmitted?
8. What is Doppler shift? What is its importance?
BOARD MEMBER -2 QUESTION LEVEL- TOUGH)
1. I will make two fuzzy statements. Pencil is long. Table is long. What is the term long signify?
2. What is a membership function?
3. What are the design criteria for very low frequency amplifier?
4. Can you measure distance with the help of CW radar? If so how?
5. How will you design a stable oscillator? (Not with crystal oscillator because temperature affects it)
6. You have designed an amplifier. After few days it is found that its gain have changed. What might be the reason?
BOARD MEMBER-3 (QUESTION LEVEL- MODERATE)
1. A plane is moving in a circular path around the transmitter of the radar. Will there be Doppler shift detected in the radar?
2. State Keplers laws
3. Why there is more geo synchronous satellite?
4. The angular difference between two satellites is 2 degree. What is the maximum number of satellites needed to cover the whole earth?
5. What is the minimum number of satellites needed to cover the whole earth?
BOARD MEMBER-4 QUESTION LEVEL- MODERATE)
1. Which is the law of conservation involved in the second of Keplers?
2. Why do you explain elliptical orbit while stating Kepler's law? Why not circular orbit?
3. What are the advantages of optical communication?
4. What are the invasive and non-invasive methods of instrumentation?
For CS guys they started with this question: What is a key board? Where u will connec? What will happen if you press the keys?..
For maths guys they asked some questions on series.. I don't know muchSome guys were selected just by describing the final year project.
1. How can you design a phase detector using a XOR gate?
2. Questions abt differentiator and integrator. What will happen if we increase/decrease the values of R/C?
3. how will a low/high pass filters behave to different signals –ramp, pulse etc
4. questions on flip flops
5. Johnson counter
6. Questions on microprocessors- what is SIM?
7. Abt your project. What will happen when this/that happens to your project?
8. Radar, antenna and satellite communication.
9. Which is the first/latest communication satellite?
10. What is apogee /perigee?
Test Paper :4
Paper Type : Technical - Other
Test Date : 7 September 2008
Test Location : Holy Cross School, Raipur
Posted By : Shilpa
DRDO PAPER ON 7th SEPTEMBER AT RAIPUR
I have appeared for DRDO SET exam held on 7th Sep 2008.I belongs to Electronics and Communication branch. The paper was not very tough. As given in the DRDO syllabus there were questions from all 8 topics. There were in all 150 questions, 100 technical with a negative marking of 1 per wrong answer and 4 for right one, and 50 from logical, spatial, conceptual, abstract, and numerical reasoning with a negative marking of 0.5 per wrong answer and 2 for right one. Total duration is of 3 hours.
For electronics branch the technical questions include –
- From networks (in all 10-12 questions), some simple circuits were given and current-voltage in some branch was asked.
- On wye-delta formula
- Question on graphs, cut set matrix etc.
- On maximum power transfer theorem and superposition principle.
- From electron devices (in all 4-5 questions), on JFET pinch off voltage formula
- P-well fabrication process
- PIN diode
- Mobility of electron and proton
- From analog (in all 9-10 questions), to find output of a subtractor opamp circuit
- Some diode circuit was given and asked which diode is on and off and the net voltage at output.
- On opamp integrator circuit output.
- From digital (in all 9-10 questions), to find 2’s complement.
- One Boolean function was given for reducing.
- On properties of logic families like which family among following has maximum propagation delay etc..
- On resolution formula of ADC-DAC’s
- About interrupts in microprocessors, like which one is level or edge triggered.
- No program was given to find output but something was asked about 1 command.
- From signals and systems (in all 7-8 questions), formula based question to find transforms.
- Some function was given and was asked to find whether it is causal, time-variant, linear etc or not.
- From control systems (in all 7-8 questions), 1 on PID controller equation.
- 1 function was given and its signal flow graph was asked.
- On root loci angle formula.
- To find electrical analogue of given mechanical elements, match the column type.
- From communication (in all 9-10 questions), some on mean, power spectral density, probability density function etc…
- To find image frequency in super-heterodyne receiver.
- On SNR.
- 1 to find entropy with given probabilities.
- 1 on GSM.
- From electromagnetics (in all 7-8 questions), on divergence theorem.
- 1 on integral form of Maxwell’s equation, we have to choose wrong one out
- Some on plane waves between 2 media.
- Single and multi mode index fiber
- On antenna, to find radiation pattern of given dipole etc.
The questions were mostly formula based and do not require much calculations. The reasoning question includes current affairs, about DRDO products, 10-12th mathematics, English, diagrammatic questions etc….. Some are-
- Where is Sarnath located? Ans- Varanasi (U.P.)
- When was DRDO established? Ans- 1954
- SAMYUKTA is used by whom army, navy or air force? Ans- Army
- HUMSA is used for.
- About 1 type of pea which DRDO has introduced.
- Acrophobia is the fear from what? Ans- Heights
- To find particular solution of given differential equation.
- On A.P., G.P. formula.
- Some on complex numbers.
- Some 4-5 words were given and was asked to find out how many are spelt incorrectly.
- Some questions were to find out punctuation and grammatical errors.
- Some figures were given and rotated in some direction. We have to complete the sequence. Nearly 6-7 questions were there on such spatial reasoning.
My advice is just go through all the topics, do not leave any topics. And refer www.drdr.org regarding DRDO products. Rest reasoning can be done on the spot. Please pay attention to technical part more. Please pray for me.
All the best for other aspirants
Shilpa
Paper Type : Technical - Other
Test Date : 7 September 2008
Test Location : Holy Cross School, Raipur
Posted By : Shilpa
DRDO PAPER ON 7th SEPTEMBER AT RAIPUR
I have appeared for DRDO SET exam held on 7th Sep 2008.I belongs to Electronics and Communication branch. The paper was not very tough. As given in the DRDO syllabus there were questions from all 8 topics. There were in all 150 questions, 100 technical with a negative marking of 1 per wrong answer and 4 for right one, and 50 from logical, spatial, conceptual, abstract, and numerical reasoning with a negative marking of 0.5 per wrong answer and 2 for right one. Total duration is of 3 hours.
For electronics branch the technical questions include –
- From networks (in all 10-12 questions), some simple circuits were given and current-voltage in some branch was asked.
- On wye-delta formula
- Question on graphs, cut set matrix etc.
- On maximum power transfer theorem and superposition principle.
- From electron devices (in all 4-5 questions), on JFET pinch off voltage formula
- P-well fabrication process
- PIN diode
- Mobility of electron and proton
- From analog (in all 9-10 questions), to find output of a subtractor opamp circuit
- Some diode circuit was given and asked which diode is on and off and the net voltage at output.
- On opamp integrator circuit output.
- From digital (in all 9-10 questions), to find 2’s complement.
- One Boolean function was given for reducing.
- On properties of logic families like which family among following has maximum propagation delay etc..
- On resolution formula of ADC-DAC’s
- About interrupts in microprocessors, like which one is level or edge triggered.
- No program was given to find output but something was asked about 1 command.
- From signals and systems (in all 7-8 questions), formula based question to find transforms.
- Some function was given and was asked to find whether it is causal, time-variant, linear etc or not.
- From control systems (in all 7-8 questions), 1 on PID controller equation.
- 1 function was given and its signal flow graph was asked.
- On root loci angle formula.
- To find electrical analogue of given mechanical elements, match the column type.
- From communication (in all 9-10 questions), some on mean, power spectral density, probability density function etc…
- To find image frequency in super-heterodyne receiver.
- On SNR.
- 1 to find entropy with given probabilities.
- 1 on GSM.
- From electromagnetics (in all 7-8 questions), on divergence theorem.
- 1 on integral form of Maxwell’s equation, we have to choose wrong one out
- Some on plane waves between 2 media.
- Single and multi mode index fiber
- On antenna, to find radiation pattern of given dipole etc.
The questions were mostly formula based and do not require much calculations. The reasoning question includes current affairs, about DRDO products, 10-12th mathematics, English, diagrammatic questions etc….. Some are-
- Where is Sarnath located? Ans- Varanasi (U.P.)
- When was DRDO established? Ans- 1954
- SAMYUKTA is used by whom army, navy or air force? Ans- Army
- HUMSA is used for.
- About 1 type of pea which DRDO has introduced.
- Acrophobia is the fear from what? Ans- Heights
- To find particular solution of given differential equation.
- On A.P., G.P. formula.
- Some on complex numbers.
- Some 4-5 words were given and was asked to find out how many are spelt incorrectly.
- Some questions were to find out punctuation and grammatical errors.
- Some figures were given and rotated in some direction. We have to complete the sequence. Nearly 6-7 questions were there on such spatial reasoning.
My advice is just go through all the topics, do not leave any topics. And refer www.drdr.org regarding DRDO products. Rest reasoning can be done on the spot. Please pay attention to technical part more. Please pray for me.
All the best for other aspirants
Shilpa
Test Paper :3
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 12 September 2008
Posted By : Nisha
DRDO PAPER ON 12th SEPTEMBER 2008
Paper Pattern
1. Miss Universe 2008 is—
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Dayana Mendoza
(C) Lisa Lazarus
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundii
(E) None of these
2. Who among the following has awarded UNESCO / Guillermo Cano world press freedom award for 2008 ?
(A) Anna Politkovskaya
(B) Amira Hass
(C) Raul Rivero
(D) Lydia Cacho Rebeiro
(E) None of these
3. The present Governor of Bihar is—
(A) R.L.Bhatia
(B) R.S.Gavai
(C) Buta Singh
(D) S.S.Sidhu
(E) None of these
4. India test-fired Nuclear Capable Agni III on May 7, 2008 for—
(A) Fourth time
(B) Second time
(C) Third time
(D) Fifth time
(E) None of these
5. Tenth century coins have been found from the city of—
(A) Guwahati
(B) Bareily
(C) Khandwa
(D) Ranchi
(E) None of these
6. The cyclone which struck Myanmar in May 2008 was—
(A) Willy-willy
(B) Nargis
(C) Fanoos
(D) Nasim
(E) None of these
7. The number of children, who are deprived of basic healthcare in India, as per the report—state of the World’s Mothers—brought out by global humanitarian organization ‘save the children’ is—
(A) 60 million
(B) 50 million
(C) 67 million
(D) 55 million
(E) None of these
8. The country where the system of two Supreme Courts has been proposed is—
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following is not a member of the NATO ?
(A) Austria
(B) Poland
(C) Hungary
(D) Spain
(E) None of these
10. Who became Britain’s first Asian woman Lord Mayor ?
(A) Rekha Rani
(B) Anjula Sood
(C) Reshma Shah
(D) Kavita Sahni
(E) None of these
11. The newly elected President of Paragury is—
(A) Fernando De Silva
(B) Fernando Lugo
(C) Fernando Silvio
(D) Fernando Dominique
(E) None of these
12. Silvio Berlusconi was recently elected to the post of Prime Ministership of Italy. He belongs to—
(A) Italian Nationalist Party
(B) The Patriotic Alliance
(C) People’s Party of Italy
(D) People of Freedom Party
(E) None of these
13. PLA stands for—
(A) Party of Leninist Association
(B) People’s Liberation Army
(C) People for Liberal Alliance
(D) People for Left Alliance
(E) None of these
14. The number of African countries which attended the recently concluded India-Africa Forum Summit is—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
(E) None of these
15. According to a recent survey which of India’s states has topped in rural electrification ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
16. Simran Kaur Mundi has been chosen—
(A) Miss India Earth 2008
(B) Miss India Universe 2008
(C) Miss India World 2008
(D) None of the above
(E) None of these
17. Which one of the following won Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding for 2007 ?
(A) Olafur Ragnar
(B) Javed Akhtar
(C) Luiz Lula da Silva
(D) The Milinda and Gates Foundation
(E) None of these
18. The book ‘Unaccustommed Earth’ is written by—
(A) P. M. Nayyar
(B) Shobha De
(C) Jhumpi Lahiri
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
19. The 2008 Edition of Wisden Cricketers’ Almanack–Crickets major annual reference work has named “The Leading Cricketer of the World for 2007”—
(A) Mc Grath
(B) Jacques Kallis
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
20. India ranks …………… in foreign exchange forex reserve.
(A) Third
(B) Second
(C) Fifth
(D) Fourth
(E) None of these
21. Raghuram Rajan Committee is related to—
(A) Austerity in government expenditure
(B) Study of causes of rising prices
(C) Financial sector reforms
(D) Export-import balance
(E) None of these
22. The International Monetary Fund has estimated India’s contribution to World Gross Domestic Product in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms for 2007 to—
(A) 4·6%
(B) 6·4%
(C) 7·1%
(D) 3·9%
(E) None of these
23. According to data released by the Ministry of Finance, currently the per capita debt on each of the roughly 110 crore Indians stands at—
(A) Rs. 71502
(B) Rs. 7218
(C) Rs. 10550
(D) Rs. 6103
(E) None of these
24. Which one of the three single cross improved hybrids of maize has not been developed and recommended for an All India level use by Chaudhry Charan Singh Haryana Agriculture University ?
(A) HPM–6
(B) HM–8
(C) HM–10
(D) HQPM–7
(E) None of these
25. US has decided to remove ………from its list of states sponsoring terrorism.
(A) Cuba
(B) Iraq
(C) North Korea
(D) Libya
(E) None of these
26. In the year 2006-07 India received Foreign Direct Investment Worth—
(A) $ 25 billion
(B) $ 24·5 billion
(C) $ 26·25 billion
(D) 20·5 billion
(E) None of these
27. For the first time, the T.V. Cameras and print cameramen were allowed to record proceedings of the Lok Adalats dispensing justice on—
(A) May 3, 2008
(B) May 5, 2008
(C) May 7, 2008
(D) May 4, 2008
(E) None of these
28. As a part of the partial solution to the world’s energy crisis, the scientists of which of the following countries are building a nuclear fusion laboratory designed to recreate the temperatures and pressure of an exploding star ?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Australia
(D) France
(E) None of these
29. Recently, a fatal disease broke out in China infecting thousands of children and causing death of some of them. The disease was—
(A) Bird flu
(B) Filariasis
(C) Hand, mouth and foot disease
(D) Chicken pox
(E) None of these
30. Two Indian doctors from Kolhapur have achieved a path breaking success in the research of—
(A) Genetics
(B) Stem cell
(C) New protein structure
(D) Habit pattern of different people
(E) None of these
31. Apart from ISRO, three other agencies/institutions were also involved in the execution of PSLV-C9. Which of the following was not involved ?
(A) DRDO
(B) Antrix Corporation
(C) Cosmos International Germany
(D) University of Toronto, Canada
(E) None of these
32. The Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline, slated to begin in 2009 was conceptualised first in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1989
(C) 1985
(D) 1993
(E) None of these
33. In addition to Kolkata and Delhi, the Union Government plans to start Metro rail service in four more cities. Which of the following is not included in the plan ?
(A) Kochi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Chennai
(E) None of these
34. President Pratibha Patil recently visited Chile, Brazil and Mexico. During her trip, with which of the following countries did India sign an extradition treaty—
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
34. President Pratibha Patil recently visited Chile, Brazil and Mexico. During her trip, with which of the following countries did India sign an extradition treaty—
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
35. The winner of the 2008 Wimbledon Open Tennis Tournament men's single title is -
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Andy Roddick
(C) Novak Djokovic
(D) Rafael Nadal
(E) None of these
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 12 September 2008
Posted By : Nisha
DRDO PAPER ON 12th SEPTEMBER 2008
Paper Pattern
1. Miss Universe 2008 is—
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Dayana Mendoza
(C) Lisa Lazarus
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundii
(E) None of these
2. Who among the following has awarded UNESCO / Guillermo Cano world press freedom award for 2008 ?
(A) Anna Politkovskaya
(B) Amira Hass
(C) Raul Rivero
(D) Lydia Cacho Rebeiro
(E) None of these
3. The present Governor of Bihar is—
(A) R.L.Bhatia
(B) R.S.Gavai
(C) Buta Singh
(D) S.S.Sidhu
(E) None of these
4. India test-fired Nuclear Capable Agni III on May 7, 2008 for—
(A) Fourth time
(B) Second time
(C) Third time
(D) Fifth time
(E) None of these
5. Tenth century coins have been found from the city of—
(A) Guwahati
(B) Bareily
(C) Khandwa
(D) Ranchi
(E) None of these
6. The cyclone which struck Myanmar in May 2008 was—
(A) Willy-willy
(B) Nargis
(C) Fanoos
(D) Nasim
(E) None of these
7. The number of children, who are deprived of basic healthcare in India, as per the report—state of the World’s Mothers—brought out by global humanitarian organization ‘save the children’ is—
(A) 60 million
(B) 50 million
(C) 67 million
(D) 55 million
(E) None of these
8. The country where the system of two Supreme Courts has been proposed is—
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following is not a member of the NATO ?
(A) Austria
(B) Poland
(C) Hungary
(D) Spain
(E) None of these
10. Who became Britain’s first Asian woman Lord Mayor ?
(A) Rekha Rani
(B) Anjula Sood
(C) Reshma Shah
(D) Kavita Sahni
(E) None of these
11. The newly elected President of Paragury is—
(A) Fernando De Silva
(B) Fernando Lugo
(C) Fernando Silvio
(D) Fernando Dominique
(E) None of these
12. Silvio Berlusconi was recently elected to the post of Prime Ministership of Italy. He belongs to—
(A) Italian Nationalist Party
(B) The Patriotic Alliance
(C) People’s Party of Italy
(D) People of Freedom Party
(E) None of these
13. PLA stands for—
(A) Party of Leninist Association
(B) People’s Liberation Army
(C) People for Liberal Alliance
(D) People for Left Alliance
(E) None of these
14. The number of African countries which attended the recently concluded India-Africa Forum Summit is—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
(E) None of these
15. According to a recent survey which of India’s states has topped in rural electrification ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
16. Simran Kaur Mundi has been chosen—
(A) Miss India Earth 2008
(B) Miss India Universe 2008
(C) Miss India World 2008
(D) None of the above
(E) None of these
17. Which one of the following won Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding for 2007 ?
(A) Olafur Ragnar
(B) Javed Akhtar
(C) Luiz Lula da Silva
(D) The Milinda and Gates Foundation
(E) None of these
18. The book ‘Unaccustommed Earth’ is written by—
(A) P. M. Nayyar
(B) Shobha De
(C) Jhumpi Lahiri
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
19. The 2008 Edition of Wisden Cricketers’ Almanack–Crickets major annual reference work has named “The Leading Cricketer of the World for 2007”—
(A) Mc Grath
(B) Jacques Kallis
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
20. India ranks …………… in foreign exchange forex reserve.
(A) Third
(B) Second
(C) Fifth
(D) Fourth
(E) None of these
21. Raghuram Rajan Committee is related to—
(A) Austerity in government expenditure
(B) Study of causes of rising prices
(C) Financial sector reforms
(D) Export-import balance
(E) None of these
22. The International Monetary Fund has estimated India’s contribution to World Gross Domestic Product in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms for 2007 to—
(A) 4·6%
(B) 6·4%
(C) 7·1%
(D) 3·9%
(E) None of these
23. According to data released by the Ministry of Finance, currently the per capita debt on each of the roughly 110 crore Indians stands at—
(A) Rs. 71502
(B) Rs. 7218
(C) Rs. 10550
(D) Rs. 6103
(E) None of these
24. Which one of the three single cross improved hybrids of maize has not been developed and recommended for an All India level use by Chaudhry Charan Singh Haryana Agriculture University ?
(A) HPM–6
(B) HM–8
(C) HM–10
(D) HQPM–7
(E) None of these
25. US has decided to remove ………from its list of states sponsoring terrorism.
(A) Cuba
(B) Iraq
(C) North Korea
(D) Libya
(E) None of these
26. In the year 2006-07 India received Foreign Direct Investment Worth—
(A) $ 25 billion
(B) $ 24·5 billion
(C) $ 26·25 billion
(D) 20·5 billion
(E) None of these
27. For the first time, the T.V. Cameras and print cameramen were allowed to record proceedings of the Lok Adalats dispensing justice on—
(A) May 3, 2008
(B) May 5, 2008
(C) May 7, 2008
(D) May 4, 2008
(E) None of these
28. As a part of the partial solution to the world’s energy crisis, the scientists of which of the following countries are building a nuclear fusion laboratory designed to recreate the temperatures and pressure of an exploding star ?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Australia
(D) France
(E) None of these
29. Recently, a fatal disease broke out in China infecting thousands of children and causing death of some of them. The disease was—
(A) Bird flu
(B) Filariasis
(C) Hand, mouth and foot disease
(D) Chicken pox
(E) None of these
30. Two Indian doctors from Kolhapur have achieved a path breaking success in the research of—
(A) Genetics
(B) Stem cell
(C) New protein structure
(D) Habit pattern of different people
(E) None of these
31. Apart from ISRO, three other agencies/institutions were also involved in the execution of PSLV-C9. Which of the following was not involved ?
(A) DRDO
(B) Antrix Corporation
(C) Cosmos International Germany
(D) University of Toronto, Canada
(E) None of these
32. The Iran-Pakistan-India gas pipeline, slated to begin in 2009 was conceptualised first in—
(A) 1991
(B) 1989
(C) 1985
(D) 1993
(E) None of these
33. In addition to Kolkata and Delhi, the Union Government plans to start Metro rail service in four more cities. Which of the following is not included in the plan ?
(A) Kochi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Chennai
(E) None of these
34. President Pratibha Patil recently visited Chile, Brazil and Mexico. During her trip, with which of the following countries did India sign an extradition treaty—
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
34. President Pratibha Patil recently visited Chile, Brazil and Mexico. During her trip, with which of the following countries did India sign an extradition treaty—
(A) Brazil
(B) Chile
(C) Mexico
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
35. The winner of the 2008 Wimbledon Open Tennis Tournament men's single title is -
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Andy Roddick
(C) Novak Djokovic
(D) Rafael Nadal
(E) None of these
Test Paper :2
Posted By : admin
DRDO Question Pattern
Test for all is 3 hours 100 technical questions 25 GK and current affairs and 25 aptitude.
well there are several books available for preparing for DRDO.Any book which is prescribed for the GATE
preparation would do sufficiently.
Computer Organization---William Stallings,Morris Mano
Theory of Computation---Aho and Ullman
Compiler Design-----Ullman
Operating systems----Galvin
computer Networks----William Stallings
apart from these for apptitude and General Knowledge
Refer some good magazines like CSR, Manorama Year book for GK sample gk questions and R.S Agarwal
INTERVIEW
The interview is a cool one. 5-6 members' board very friendly.
You have to reach at least half an hour earlier and complete the filling of forms and other formalities.
You must be in formals with tie (guys) and gals sorry no info.
Should have a strong and attractive personality.
You will be seated in a big hall. Refreshments are provided.
If you don't bring the following certificates in original and in Xerox you will not be allowed to be interviewed. The certificates are SSLC, PDC / PUC / 12,BTech/BE provisional or original, all the mark lists from 10th to BTech,hall ticket ,interview call letter, course certificate from the college, ID card (passport, college ID or voters ID), two passport sized photographs and certificates of any extra curricular activities like paper presentation, project work etc etc…
Carry with you the reports of the project work and papers presented.
Have a good look into the prospectus of DRDO set 2003- Salary, post and things like that. Should have sound info about the different wings of DRDO. Refer the site www.drdo.org
Inside the room you will be seated in front of a board of members. Behind you will be a white board and a sketch pen will be handed over you. You will have to use the board to explain the answers.
The subjects that are hot favorites to the DRDO board – radar and navigational aids, satellite communication, antenna theory, digital, filters and microprocessors. (Sorry guys I have the info about ECE branch only).
There will be one minute warming questions in the beginning.
Question of general interest will be asked and they may ask to describe you. After that they will straight a way get into the tech interview. Don't expect any leniency from the super brains of India.
If they see that you are not capable of answering a subject they will stick on to that subject and fire you with a volley of questions until you yourself think that "I am really a fool". Then now abt the standard of question. They ask only basic questions. Questions are simple but twisted. You should be able to give innovative solutions to the problems they give you- after all it's a Scientist B post.
The sample pattern 01 is previous interview questions and 02 is questions of the test
For More info Visit Website : www.drdo.org
Posted By : admin
DRDO Question Pattern
Test for all is 3 hours 100 technical questions 25 GK and current affairs and 25 aptitude.
well there are several books available for preparing for DRDO.Any book which is prescribed for the GATE
preparation would do sufficiently.
Computer Organization---William Stallings,Morris Mano
Theory of Computation---Aho and Ullman
Compiler Design-----Ullman
Operating systems----Galvin
computer Networks----William Stallings
apart from these for apptitude and General Knowledge
Refer some good magazines like CSR, Manorama Year book for GK sample gk questions and R.S Agarwal
INTERVIEW
The interview is a cool one. 5-6 members' board very friendly.
You have to reach at least half an hour earlier and complete the filling of forms and other formalities.
You must be in formals with tie (guys) and gals sorry no info.
Should have a strong and attractive personality.
You will be seated in a big hall. Refreshments are provided.
If you don't bring the following certificates in original and in Xerox you will not be allowed to be interviewed. The certificates are SSLC, PDC / PUC / 12,BTech/BE provisional or original, all the mark lists from 10th to BTech,hall ticket ,interview call letter, course certificate from the college, ID card (passport, college ID or voters ID), two passport sized photographs and certificates of any extra curricular activities like paper presentation, project work etc etc…
Carry with you the reports of the project work and papers presented.
Have a good look into the prospectus of DRDO set 2003- Salary, post and things like that. Should have sound info about the different wings of DRDO. Refer the site www.drdo.org
Inside the room you will be seated in front of a board of members. Behind you will be a white board and a sketch pen will be handed over you. You will have to use the board to explain the answers.
The subjects that are hot favorites to the DRDO board – radar and navigational aids, satellite communication, antenna theory, digital, filters and microprocessors. (Sorry guys I have the info about ECE branch only).
There will be one minute warming questions in the beginning.
Question of general interest will be asked and they may ask to describe you. After that they will straight a way get into the tech interview. Don't expect any leniency from the super brains of India.
If they see that you are not capable of answering a subject they will stick on to that subject and fire you with a volley of questions until you yourself think that "I am really a fool". Then now abt the standard of question. They ask only basic questions. Questions are simple but twisted. You should be able to give innovative solutions to the problems they give you- after all it's a Scientist B post.
The sample pattern 01 is previous interview questions and 02 is questions of the test
For More info Visit Website : www.drdo.org
DRDO
DRDO Company Profile
DRDO was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the then already functioning Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO). DRDO was then a small organisation with 10 establishments or laboratories. Over the years, it has grown multi-directionally in terms of the variety of subject disciplines, number of laboratories, achievements and stature.
DRDO works towards enhancing self-reliance in Defence Systems and undertakes design & development leading to production of weapon systems and equipment in accordance to the requirements laid down by the three services. DRDO’s work involves various areas of technology, including aeronautics, armaments, combat vehicles, electronics, instrumentation engineering systems, missiles, materials, naval systems, advanced computing, simulation and life sciences.
Today, DRDO is a network of 51 laboratories which are deeply engaged in developing defence technologies covering various disciplines, like aeronautics, armaments, electronics, combat vehicles, engineering systems, instrumentation, missiles, advanced computing and simulation, special materials, naval systems, life sciences, training, information systems and agriculture.
Presently, the Organisation is backed by over 5000 scientists and about 25,000 other scientific, technical and supporting personnel. Several major projects for the development of missiles, armaments, light combat aircrafts, radars, electronic warfare systems etc are on hand and significant achievements have already been made in several such technologies.
Core Competence
Deptt of Defence Research and Development (R&D) is working for indigenous development of weapons, sensors & platforms required by the three wings of the Armed Forces. To fulfill this mandate, Deptt of Defence Research and Development (R&D), is closely working with academic institutions, Research and Development (R&D) Centres and production agencies of Science andTechnology (S&T) Ministries/Deptts in Public & Civil Sector including Defence Public Sector Undertakings & Ordnance Factories.
Defence research & development services
Recruitment and selection of right people with desired competencies form the base of building an effective organisation. Defence Research & Development Organisation recruit/select scientists and engineers through an annual competitive examination at national level called Scientist Entry Test (SET) through open advertisement. In addition to this, talent search through campus interviews, scholarship scheme through Aeronautics Research & Development Board (ARDB) and fresh Ph.D scholars under Registration of Students with Scholastic Aptitude (ROSSA) is also launched.
Defence Research Technical Cadre (DRTC)
The members of this cadre form strong skilled manpower base to assist scientists and engineers engaged in research and development work.
Admin and Allied Cadre
The members of Admin & Allied cadre provide administrative/establishment support. Personnel for officer post are recruited through UPSC and non-gazetted personnel are recruited by the laboratories/establishments as per the notified Recruitment Rules.
Training and Development
DRDO has a dynamic training and development policy which is executed through the Continuing Educational Programmes (CEP) for all cadre personnel viz DRDS, DRTC, Admin & Allied. At the entry level in DRDS, the newly recruited scientists undergo a 16 weeks Induction Course at Institute of Armament Technology (IAT), Pune. Under the Research and Training (R&T) scheme the scientists are sponsored for ME/M Tech programmes at IITs/IISc and reputed universities. The fees is also reimbursed by the DRDO where scientists undergo Ph.D programme. In addition to this, the Organisation through its two premier Institutes namely Institute of Technology Management (ITM) and Institute of Armament Technology (IAT) deemed university offer courses for scientists and Armed Forces in the area of Technology Management, R&D Management and Armament. Recently, a training centre at Jodhpur has been established to meet the training needs for Admin & Allied cadre. In order to attract the futuristic talent, DRDO has Junior Research Fellow (JRF), Senior Research Fellow (SRF) and Research Associate (RA) schemes for young & dynamic personnel & interested in Defence Research and Development.
Vision
" DRDO will get transformed into a Technological Leader of World Class with corporate structure and with a mission of making the nation independent of foreign Technology in critical spheres "
Objective
" Design and development which will lead to production, of the state-of-art weapons and equipment and other support
systems as required by the Indian defence services from time to time "
Formed : 1958
Headquarters :DRDO Bhavan, New Delhi
Employees :30,000 (5,000 scientists)
Annual Budget: US$ 1.18 billion (2006)
Projects
Aeronautics
Armaments
Electronics and computer sciences
Combat Vehicles & engineering
Naval Research and Development
Missile Systems
Contact
Defence R & D Organisation
D-5, Airport Colony Kumharpara
Jagdalpur
India-494 001
For more details please visit www.drdo.org
DRDO was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the then already functioning Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO). DRDO was then a small organisation with 10 establishments or laboratories. Over the years, it has grown multi-directionally in terms of the variety of subject disciplines, number of laboratories, achievements and stature.
DRDO works towards enhancing self-reliance in Defence Systems and undertakes design & development leading to production of weapon systems and equipment in accordance to the requirements laid down by the three services. DRDO’s work involves various areas of technology, including aeronautics, armaments, combat vehicles, electronics, instrumentation engineering systems, missiles, materials, naval systems, advanced computing, simulation and life sciences.
Today, DRDO is a network of 51 laboratories which are deeply engaged in developing defence technologies covering various disciplines, like aeronautics, armaments, electronics, combat vehicles, engineering systems, instrumentation, missiles, advanced computing and simulation, special materials, naval systems, life sciences, training, information systems and agriculture.
Presently, the Organisation is backed by over 5000 scientists and about 25,000 other scientific, technical and supporting personnel. Several major projects for the development of missiles, armaments, light combat aircrafts, radars, electronic warfare systems etc are on hand and significant achievements have already been made in several such technologies.
Core Competence
Deptt of Defence Research and Development (R&D) is working for indigenous development of weapons, sensors & platforms required by the three wings of the Armed Forces. To fulfill this mandate, Deptt of Defence Research and Development (R&D), is closely working with academic institutions, Research and Development (R&D) Centres and production agencies of Science andTechnology (S&T) Ministries/Deptts in Public & Civil Sector including Defence Public Sector Undertakings & Ordnance Factories.
Defence research & development services
Recruitment and selection of right people with desired competencies form the base of building an effective organisation. Defence Research & Development Organisation recruit/select scientists and engineers through an annual competitive examination at national level called Scientist Entry Test (SET) through open advertisement. In addition to this, talent search through campus interviews, scholarship scheme through Aeronautics Research & Development Board (ARDB) and fresh Ph.D scholars under Registration of Students with Scholastic Aptitude (ROSSA) is also launched.
Defence Research Technical Cadre (DRTC)
The members of this cadre form strong skilled manpower base to assist scientists and engineers engaged in research and development work.
Admin and Allied Cadre
The members of Admin & Allied cadre provide administrative/establishment support. Personnel for officer post are recruited through UPSC and non-gazetted personnel are recruited by the laboratories/establishments as per the notified Recruitment Rules.
Training and Development
DRDO has a dynamic training and development policy which is executed through the Continuing Educational Programmes (CEP) for all cadre personnel viz DRDS, DRTC, Admin & Allied. At the entry level in DRDS, the newly recruited scientists undergo a 16 weeks Induction Course at Institute of Armament Technology (IAT), Pune. Under the Research and Training (R&T) scheme the scientists are sponsored for ME/M Tech programmes at IITs/IISc and reputed universities. The fees is also reimbursed by the DRDO where scientists undergo Ph.D programme. In addition to this, the Organisation through its two premier Institutes namely Institute of Technology Management (ITM) and Institute of Armament Technology (IAT) deemed university offer courses for scientists and Armed Forces in the area of Technology Management, R&D Management and Armament. Recently, a training centre at Jodhpur has been established to meet the training needs for Admin & Allied cadre. In order to attract the futuristic talent, DRDO has Junior Research Fellow (JRF), Senior Research Fellow (SRF) and Research Associate (RA) schemes for young & dynamic personnel & interested in Defence Research and Development.
Vision
" DRDO will get transformed into a Technological Leader of World Class with corporate structure and with a mission of making the nation independent of foreign Technology in critical spheres "
Objective
" Design and development which will lead to production, of the state-of-art weapons and equipment and other support
systems as required by the Indian defence services from time to time "
Formed : 1958
Headquarters :DRDO Bhavan, New Delhi
Employees :30,000 (5,000 scientists)
Annual Budget: US$ 1.18 billion (2006)
Projects
Aeronautics
Armaments
Electronics and computer sciences
Combat Vehicles & engineering
Naval Research and Development
Missile Systems
Contact
Defence R & D Organisation
D-5, Airport Colony Kumharpara
Jagdalpur
India-494 001
For more details please visit www.drdo.org
INDIAN AIRFORCE PAPER
Test Paper :3
Paper Type : General - other
Test Date : 4 September 2008
Posted By : Sruthi
INDIAN AIRFORCE PAPER ON 4TH SEPTEMBER,2008
Hello guys! am shreya....appeared for the airforce ekt today...for the ssc (AE(electronics))
It was an objective type question paper.....1 hr duration....no calculations at all. There were 75 questions in total- part A-general engg 40 questions and part B-special paper (mine was electronics n comm)-35 questions
Part A
Well i dont know why they call it the general engg paper as most of the questions wr from the thermodynamics (12 th std)
1. on adiabatic and isothermal processes
2. carnot cycle
3. entropy change in adiabatic n isothermal processes
4. otto engine
5. some simple questions on RLC networks
6. some questions on chemistry better to say elctrical engg material science (superconductivity etc)
7. digital -binary of 100 n mux
There were hardly any questions from basic electronics n most of this part of the paper felt like a 12th std physics paper
Part B
If u study George Kennedy well then you'll get most of the questions
1. communication mainly satellite n antennas( geosynchronous, antenna gain)
2. no questions from rec n transmitter n semiconductor devices used in the microwave range (ie none from IMPATT n all those negative resistances devices)
3. try n cover the conceptual logics
4.little questions from modulation like nyquist rate
5.no questions from radar, control engg
6.wave propagation was in plenty.. all those layers (D E F)
Best if u attend to all the questions given at the end of Kennedy.. that was quite useful
Overall....you'll get thru the paper if u know yr concepts well....but thermodynamics in the paper was uncalled for(55 % or more of the general engg paper constituted of it) Anyways.....BEST OF LUCK
Paper Type : General - other
Test Date : 4 September 2008
Posted By : Sruthi
INDIAN AIRFORCE PAPER ON 4TH SEPTEMBER,2008
Hello guys! am shreya....appeared for the airforce ekt today...for the ssc (AE(electronics))
It was an objective type question paper.....1 hr duration....no calculations at all. There were 75 questions in total- part A-general engg 40 questions and part B-special paper (mine was electronics n comm)-35 questions
Part A
Well i dont know why they call it the general engg paper as most of the questions wr from the thermodynamics (12 th std)
1. on adiabatic and isothermal processes
2. carnot cycle
3. entropy change in adiabatic n isothermal processes
4. otto engine
5. some simple questions on RLC networks
6. some questions on chemistry better to say elctrical engg material science (superconductivity etc)
7. digital -binary of 100 n mux
There were hardly any questions from basic electronics n most of this part of the paper felt like a 12th std physics paper
Part B
If u study George Kennedy well then you'll get most of the questions
1. communication mainly satellite n antennas( geosynchronous, antenna gain)
2. no questions from rec n transmitter n semiconductor devices used in the microwave range (ie none from IMPATT n all those negative resistances devices)
3. try n cover the conceptual logics
4.little questions from modulation like nyquist rate
5.no questions from radar, control engg
6.wave propagation was in plenty.. all those layers (D E F)
Best if u attend to all the questions given at the end of Kennedy.. that was quite useful
Overall....you'll get thru the paper if u know yr concepts well....but thermodynamics in the paper was uncalled for(55 % or more of the general engg paper constituted of it) Anyways.....BEST OF LUCK
Air force Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT)
Test Paper :2
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 26 April 2009
Test Location : air force station,yelahanka
Posted By : nithin kumar singani
Indian Airforce
Air force Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT)
It has two sections. One is engineering Test. this is common for all engineering branches. It has 40 questions. Each question carries one mark. No negative marking.
And the other test is in u r specialization. I had written in electronics &communication. It has 35 questions. Each question carries one mark. No negative marking.
Duration of whole test is one hour. They will give both papers at a time. It is held on 26-04-09
Engineering test
1. Capacitance of a cell measured in..?
2.To made House use electric heater which metal/element is better..?
3. Internal resistance of ideal current source..?
4. Integral of (dx / (xlogx))…?
5. Earth &geostationary satellites have same /relative
a.accleraton b.velocity c.angular velocity
6. Sound waves are
A .Longitudinal B. Transverse C both D .neither.
7. Demultiplxer can called as ..? Ans. data distributor
8. Set of instructions meant for to do some task is called. Ans...Programme
9. Properties Alkali metals..
10. Break down occurs in diode because of.
11. If u wants to connect two systems through telephone line which of the following u will use..?
A. Bus B.Modem C.Router
12. Inductor opposes sudden changes in... Ans...Current
13. Which is non renewable energy..
a. petrol b.Coal c.Wind energy d.nuclear
14. Which material is widely used for making solar cell?
15. Cell converts.
A. Chemical energy into electric energy
B. electric energy into chemical energy
16. Steel pipes made from...
17. Human being is
A. open loop sys’m
B.closed loop sys’m with single feed back.
C. closed loop sys’m with multiple feed back.
18. If the gain of the open loop sys’m is doubled then gain margin will become..
19. Corrosion of aluminum is not formed because of..?
20. If the speed flow in pipe of diameter 6 mm is 5m/s.If this pipe is connected to another of diameter 3 mm, then speed will be..
21. They give change in force and change in diameter of a square plate. Ask us to find change in pressure...
22. They give three sets of measurements .Which are sets forms triangle..?
23. Names, numbers and other information used to solve the problems of..
a.contrlo b.data c. instruction.
24. First aid of electrical shock victim..?
25. The performance (function) of fuse doesn’t depend on..
a. Type of material b .Length of the material..
26. Annealing makes the material... (Effect of annealing)
Electronics & Communication Paper
1. Sampling is helpful for..?
2. Sound waves are (It came in both papers)
a .Longitudinal b. Transverse c. Electro magnetic d.Gravitational
3. If two identical capacitors connected parallel then effective capacitance..?
4. Wein bridge is used to measure.. Ans...Frequency
5. Which configuration has min distortion..?
a. CLASS A b. CLASS B c. CLASS C d. CLASS AB
6. Which of the following is not system software..?
a. Linker b. Loader. c. Compiler d. none
7. Min No, of NAND gates required to realize the function AB
8. Flip Flops mainly used for..?
9. Which is noise free..
a. AM b. FM.. c. Both d .none
10. Terrestrial TV propagation System used in India
a. PAL b. NTSC c. DFS
11. Skin depth of an waveguide doesn’t depend on..
a. freq b. temp c .length of the conductor d.Type of material
12. Transformer rating expressed in
13. Electrical energy can be measured using..
14. An ideal opamp has….Ans..Infinite B.W
15. Restivity range of semiconductor..?
16. They give modulation index, carrier power ask us to find total power..
17. In JFET if Vds increased what happen to Ids.?
18. They give some freq and ask us to find Image Freq…?
19. In an Unbiased semiconductor the current is zero because of..
20. If BJT is in Cutoff region
A. Max voltage appears across load
B. a.Max voltage appears across Transistor.
21. Decibel used to measure
a. power b. voltage c .current d .power level
22. In RC coupling the value of C should be high because..
23. An ideal voltage source charges capacitor in
24. They give Vmax and Vmin and ask us to find modulation index?
25. A voltage source of 5v with internal resistance 2 ohm can transfer max power to load when the value of load resistance is…
26. One question electric motor. While switching on motor load should be present. If not what will happen. Some thing like this. I didn’t remember exactly..
27. Polarization in a dielectric is given by
A. P=xE B. P= (1-x) E C.P= xeE e=permivity...x=suspectance
Paper Type : Whole Testpaper
Test Date : 26 April 2009
Test Location : air force station,yelahanka
Posted By : nithin kumar singani
Indian Airforce
Air force Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT)
It has two sections. One is engineering Test. this is common for all engineering branches. It has 40 questions. Each question carries one mark. No negative marking.
And the other test is in u r specialization. I had written in electronics &communication. It has 35 questions. Each question carries one mark. No negative marking.
Duration of whole test is one hour. They will give both papers at a time. It is held on 26-04-09
Engineering test
1. Capacitance of a cell measured in..?
2.To made House use electric heater which metal/element is better..?
3. Internal resistance of ideal current source..?
4. Integral of (dx / (xlogx))…?
5. Earth &geostationary satellites have same /relative
a.accleraton b.velocity c.angular velocity
6. Sound waves are
A .Longitudinal B. Transverse C both D .neither.
7. Demultiplxer can called as ..? Ans. data distributor
8. Set of instructions meant for to do some task is called. Ans...Programme
9. Properties Alkali metals..
10. Break down occurs in diode because of.
11. If u wants to connect two systems through telephone line which of the following u will use..?
A. Bus B.Modem C.Router
12. Inductor opposes sudden changes in... Ans...Current
13. Which is non renewable energy..
a. petrol b.Coal c.Wind energy d.nuclear
14. Which material is widely used for making solar cell?
15. Cell converts.
A. Chemical energy into electric energy
B. electric energy into chemical energy
16. Steel pipes made from...
17. Human being is
A. open loop sys’m
B.closed loop sys’m with single feed back.
C. closed loop sys’m with multiple feed back.
18. If the gain of the open loop sys’m is doubled then gain margin will become..
19. Corrosion of aluminum is not formed because of..?
20. If the speed flow in pipe of diameter 6 mm is 5m/s.If this pipe is connected to another of diameter 3 mm, then speed will be..
21. They give change in force and change in diameter of a square plate. Ask us to find change in pressure...
22. They give three sets of measurements .Which are sets forms triangle..?
23. Names, numbers and other information used to solve the problems of..
a.contrlo b.data c. instruction.
24. First aid of electrical shock victim..?
25. The performance (function) of fuse doesn’t depend on..
a. Type of material b .Length of the material..
26. Annealing makes the material... (Effect of annealing)
Electronics & Communication Paper
1. Sampling is helpful for..?
2. Sound waves are (It came in both papers)
a .Longitudinal b. Transverse c. Electro magnetic d.Gravitational
3. If two identical capacitors connected parallel then effective capacitance..?
4. Wein bridge is used to measure.. Ans...Frequency
5. Which configuration has min distortion..?
a. CLASS A b. CLASS B c. CLASS C d. CLASS AB
6. Which of the following is not system software..?
a. Linker b. Loader. c. Compiler d. none
7. Min No, of NAND gates required to realize the function AB
8. Flip Flops mainly used for..?
9. Which is noise free..
a. AM b. FM.. c. Both d .none
10. Terrestrial TV propagation System used in India
a. PAL b. NTSC c. DFS
11. Skin depth of an waveguide doesn’t depend on..
a. freq b. temp c .length of the conductor d.Type of material
12. Transformer rating expressed in
13. Electrical energy can be measured using..
14. An ideal opamp has….Ans..Infinite B.W
15. Restivity range of semiconductor..?
16. They give modulation index, carrier power ask us to find total power..
17. In JFET if Vds increased what happen to Ids.?
18. They give some freq and ask us to find Image Freq…?
19. In an Unbiased semiconductor the current is zero because of..
20. If BJT is in Cutoff region
A. Max voltage appears across load
B. a.Max voltage appears across Transistor.
21. Decibel used to measure
a. power b. voltage c .current d .power level
22. In RC coupling the value of C should be high because..
23. An ideal voltage source charges capacitor in
24. They give Vmax and Vmin and ask us to find modulation index?
25. A voltage source of 5v with internal resistance 2 ohm can transfer max power to load when the value of load resistance is…
26. One question electric motor. While switching on motor load should be present. If not what will happen. Some thing like this. I didn’t remember exactly..
27. Polarization in a dielectric is given by
A. P=xE B. P= (1-x) E C.P= xeE e=permivity...x=suspectance
TOP 50 (+1) Words of GRE
abstain - - - - to choose not to do something
adulterate - - - - to make impure
apathy - - - - lack of interest or emotion
audacious - - - - fearless and daring
capricious - - - - changing one’s mind quickly and often
corroborate - - - - to provide supporting evidence
desiccate - - - - to dry out thoroughly
engender - - - - to produce, cause, or bring about
ephemeral - - - - lasting a short time
pragmatic - - - - practical as opposed to idealistic
propriety - - - - correct behavior; obedience to rules and customs
vacillate - - - - to sway physically; to be indecisive
volatile - - - - easily aroused or changeable; lively or explosive
advocate - - - - to speak in favor of
nemesis - - - - a powerful river, a usually unconquerable opponent
bolster - - - - to support; to prop up
pariah - - - - an outcast
gullible - - - - easily deceived
surfeit - - - - abundance, excessive amount
enigma - - - - a puzzle; a mystery
spurious - - - - false, fake, not genuine
erudite - - - - learned; scholarly; bookish
fervid - - - - intensely emotional; feverish
lucid - - - - clear and easily understood
opaque - - - - impossible to see through; preventing the passage of light
placate - - - - to sooth or pacify
precipitate - - - - to throw violently or bring about abruptly; lacking deliberation
prodigal - - - - wasteful; reckless with money
zeal - - - - passion, excitement
cacophony - - - - harsh, jarring noise
deride - - - - to speak of or treat with contempt; to mock
dissonance - - - - a harsh and disagreeable combination, often of sounds
enervate - - - - to reduce in strength
eulogy - - - - speech in praise of someone
rescind - - - - to cancel, to repeal
ingenuous - - - - showing innocence or childlike simplicity
lethargic - - - - acting in an indifferent or slow, sluggish manner
malleable - - - - capable of being shaped
misanthrope - - - - a person who dislikes others
obdurate - - - - hardened in feeling; resistant to persuasion
ostentation - - - - excessive showiness
paradox - - - - a contradiction or dilemma
respite - - - - an interval of rest, a temporary delay
prevaricate - - - - to lie or deviate from the truth
venerate - - - - to respect deeply
homogenous - - - - of a similar kind
laconic - - - - using few words
laud - - - - to give praise; to glorify
loquacious - - - - talkative
mitigate - - - - to soften; to lessen
pedant - - - - someone who shows off learning
Well Lets Say its Top 51 Words
Note – There is no guarantee that words listed here will appear in GRE. You can use the words above as reference to improve your GRE Exam Verbal Skills.
adulterate - - - - to make impure
apathy - - - - lack of interest or emotion
audacious - - - - fearless and daring
capricious - - - - changing one’s mind quickly and often
corroborate - - - - to provide supporting evidence
desiccate - - - - to dry out thoroughly
engender - - - - to produce, cause, or bring about
ephemeral - - - - lasting a short time
pragmatic - - - - practical as opposed to idealistic
propriety - - - - correct behavior; obedience to rules and customs
vacillate - - - - to sway physically; to be indecisive
volatile - - - - easily aroused or changeable; lively or explosive
advocate - - - - to speak in favor of
nemesis - - - - a powerful river, a usually unconquerable opponent
bolster - - - - to support; to prop up
pariah - - - - an outcast
gullible - - - - easily deceived
surfeit - - - - abundance, excessive amount
enigma - - - - a puzzle; a mystery
spurious - - - - false, fake, not genuine
erudite - - - - learned; scholarly; bookish
fervid - - - - intensely emotional; feverish
lucid - - - - clear and easily understood
opaque - - - - impossible to see through; preventing the passage of light
placate - - - - to sooth or pacify
precipitate - - - - to throw violently or bring about abruptly; lacking deliberation
prodigal - - - - wasteful; reckless with money
zeal - - - - passion, excitement
cacophony - - - - harsh, jarring noise
deride - - - - to speak of or treat with contempt; to mock
dissonance - - - - a harsh and disagreeable combination, often of sounds
enervate - - - - to reduce in strength
eulogy - - - - speech in praise of someone
rescind - - - - to cancel, to repeal
ingenuous - - - - showing innocence or childlike simplicity
lethargic - - - - acting in an indifferent or slow, sluggish manner
malleable - - - - capable of being shaped
misanthrope - - - - a person who dislikes others
obdurate - - - - hardened in feeling; resistant to persuasion
ostentation - - - - excessive showiness
paradox - - - - a contradiction or dilemma
respite - - - - an interval of rest, a temporary delay
prevaricate - - - - to lie or deviate from the truth
venerate - - - - to respect deeply
homogenous - - - - of a similar kind
laconic - - - - using few words
laud - - - - to give praise; to glorify
loquacious - - - - talkative
mitigate - - - - to soften; to lessen
pedant - - - - someone who shows off learning
Well Lets Say its Top 51 Words
Note – There is no guarantee that words listed here will appear in GRE. You can use the words above as reference to improve your GRE Exam Verbal Skills.
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